Veneration of Mary

The references to the Holy Spirit in the OT are almost exclusively metaphorical. In that case, the gender of the word used is irrelevant to the gender of the Holy Spirit. For example, He is called the Wind (a female noun in Hebrew), but He is call a "He" and a "Him" in John 16:8, and we MUST ALWAYS follow the clearest, most easily understood passage. Further, remember that the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of God, and God is ALWAYS masculine. The Holy Spirit is not a different spirit from the Spirit that is God.

Also remember, that while the OT and the NT are written in different languages, and were written by many hands over a period of more than 1500 years, they are not separate documents; all of Scripture as a whole is one unit.
metaphors represent a Reality. God does not speak in ambiguous unclear ways...
Every reference to His Spirit is indeed feminine in the OT... and refers to a Reality. The vatican, RCC
and Augustine, in charge of the christian religion as they claimed to be though though they were not
because Christ is!, created their pagan vision of God, based on Plato's Oneness concept....
and the reformation did not reform Any thing in this regard... being tricked
by satan at every turn.

Why would He even want to be an solipsistic Oneness type god, such as the Greeks had..
which is so ugly...since it does not love... and has no family.... and is an IT... you've seen
those ugly kabalah diagrams of God with the triangles...straight from plato-aristotle..
and Augustine's texts - use all that to explain God... Augustine had not an ounce of love
in him or near him.

yes, the Greeks had 'gods' but their ultimate view was to harmonize all their 'gods'
under their One as their God and it had no gender.. it was nous but was an IT.
To this day some 'christians' view God's spirit as an IT as well, due to all this confusion.
ALL of western philosophy deals with this problem of fallen causality (substance as the One)
precisely from this source....and misidentifies it with God or else claims it evolved from nothing.
Both wrong. And the vatican even viewed our understanding of God as derived from all that,
admits it and says our view evolved from the Greek one. Admitted in their own texts.

Greek is a pagan-centric language. Ancient languages are not separated from their theologies...
Hebrew for example has no neuter 'gender' but Greek does...why? because some of its Gods are constructs,
as are Egypt's, and Greek theology is essentially Pythagorean, and Egyptian. Both have the idea of
God as being a neuter! Also, neither one believe in 'individual souls'. The only soul
they know is the daemon, which is that one or hive mind. That is where
occasionalism even comes from! All of this is what every single philosopher
has centered their philosophy on, as Bertrand Russell said, paraphrase,
no one has escaped plato. It's absolutely horrible...

The church fathers were all steeped in a classical Greek education...
It was the 'science' of their day. For God to be accepted, and augustine explicitly
discusses this in his confessions, God had to conform to science and thought.
Which was that Greek Science/philosophy and religion. And what was the One?
An unfeeling and uncaring MIND and Reason. That mind was posed as primary
substance and causality. And everything else being an accident. And
what does science center on? Reason... that is its god.

That concept does not includes Beings - only One being is allowed... the One
of the Greeks in that view. As a Mind with No Love whatsoever, and zero free will.
Whole books have been written on this. the greeks knew that under the One
there was no choice at all. No free choice and no souls.

Sorry for the cliff notes. But no, the greeks were not polytheistic in the way
that moderns want to define that term. Not even slightly.
 
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metaphors represent a Reality. God does not speak in ambiguous unclear ways...
Jesus is God, and Jesus spoke in "ambiguous unclear ways" all the time. Matt 13:13, 34 -
"Therefore I speak to them in parables; because while seeing they do not see, and while hearing they do not hear, nor do they understand."
"All these things Jesus spoke to the crowds in parables, and He did not speak anything to them without a parable."

Metaphors may represent the reality, but they are not the reality. While the wind may be female in Hebrew, the wind only represents the Holy Spirit. The wind is not the Holy Spirit. And while the wind may be female, the Holy Spirit is definitely male, as John 16:8 makes clear.

And you have yet to answer my question of what documentation you have that shows the error in the Texts we have of Scripture. Please produce your proof that the Scriptures have been corrupted as early as before 300AD.
 
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