A person did not dwell on the Earth. An it did that you think is a person. The logos is an it.
From the looks of your avatar I would guess you would see it that way.
The NWT translates John 1:1–3 like this:
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god… All things came into being through
it…”
But the
actual Greek text destroys that translation:
Greek in John 1 Literal English Translation.
ὁ λόγος … πρὸς τὸν θεόν … θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος(ho logos … “the Word … was with the God … the Word was God”
pros ton theon … theos ēn ho logos)
meanin... The Word is a
person who has a relationship
with the Father. An “it” cannot be “with” someone.
αὐτὸς ἐν ἀρχῇ πρὸς τὸν θεόν(autos en archē “This one (masculine) was in the beginning with God”
pros ton theon) – v.2
meaning.... John deliberately uses the masculine pronoun αὐτός (“he”), not the neuter αὐτό (“it”).
δι’ αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο(di’ autou egeneto) – v.3 “All things through him came into being”
meaning..... Again, αὐτοῦ = masculine “him,” not neuter “it.” John repeats the masculine 5 more times in vv. 7, 10, 12–13.
ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν “The Word became flesh and dwelt among us”
ἡμῖν(ho logos sarx egeneto) – v.14
meaning .... Only a person can become flesh, not a quality or an “it.”
Peter.... one question for you.....
“If the Word is just an impersonal ‘it,’ why does John use
masculine personal pronouns (he/him) over and over instead of the neuter ‘it’ that matches the neuter noun
logos?”
Even the Kingdom Interlinear (the JW’s own Greek-English Bible) prints
αὐτός and
αὐτοῦ in the Greek column — they had to deliberately change “he/him” to “it” in the English side.
John didn’t write about an “it.” He wrote about
a divine Person — the eternal Son who became flesh.