Thomas... My Lord and my God

I think I can find Scripture that tells us we can pray to Jesus. Would you like me to look for some?
 
Yes, He did.
No, He did not.
The Son of Man is the proper recipient of pelach, right (Daniel 7:14)?
The Messiah was given dominion and glory and a kingdom.
If He was given such things… Who was the Giver?
When was the Messiah given that?

By definition, if a being was given authority, then that authority was not eternal, and not intrinsic to such being. Then we can rest assured that such being is not God.
 
No, He did not.

The Messiah was given dominion and glory and a kingdom.
If He was given such things… Who was the Giver?
When was the Messiah given that?

By definition, if a being was given authority, then that authority was not eternal, and not intrinsic to such being. Then we can rest assured that such being is not God.
The Ancient of Days (God the Father) gave the Son dominion. You can just look in scriptures to see that. But Pancho F did not like me pointing out the problem of blasphemy so he has blocked me.
Dan 7 has been in discussion and is confirmed in Matt 26:63-65 shows that Jesus' quote of Dan 7:13 made the High Priest aware of Jesus' claim to deity. So the verses in Daniel tell us the Ancient of Days gave the kingdom to the Messiah and the High Priest confirms that he knew the claim of Jesus to divinity was in accord with Daniel 7. The logic should not be missed. It is acknowledged that these passages can be hard. You have to get familiar with the text enough to recognize the details.
 
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If Jesus was so clear in his NON-GODHOOD, why did the native speakers listening to his actual words keep getting it wrong and trying to stone Jesus for claiming equality with God?

Your position is nonsensical.
Yet Jesus called that an accusation. In other words, Jesus referred to their accusations of him claiming to be equal with God as an accusation. It's all in the Greek. Why would Jesus say their claims is blasphemy when it is not? I would also add, that many modern versions that are not the KJV use the word accuse.

John 10 (KJV)
36Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

accuse [Me]
λέγετε (legete)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 2nd Person Plural
Strong's Greek 3004: (a) I say, speak; I mean, mention, tell, (b) I call, name, especially in the pass., (c) I tell, command.

Furthermore, to put the cherry on top, Jesus directly contradicted them by denying equality with God in no vague or uncertain terms.

John 14
28Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.
 
You can believe a lie of you want.

You dodged my question.

Try not being evasive next time.
I should have answered you directly, and then asked my question.
My apologies for that. Here is the answer to your question:

Yes. The Messiah is a proper recipient of anything God has given Him the authority to receive, including pelach, for all the time and all the purposes God has given Him such authority.

(Kings were thought to receive from God authority over their subjects, for a time and for a purpose. The Messiah represents the Kingdom of God which would never be defeated and would rule over the whole world)

Now, please, I invite you to answer my question:
If The Messiah was given authority… Who was the Giver?
 
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Yet Jesus called that an accusation. In other words, Jesus referred to their accusations of him claiming to be equal with God as an accusation. It's all in the Greek. Why would Jesus say their claims is blasphemy when it is not? I would also add, that many modern versions that are not the KJV use the word accuse.

John 10 (KJV)
36Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

accuse [Me]
λέγετε (legete)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 2nd Person Plural
Strong's Greek 3004: (a) I say, speak; I mean, mention, tell, (b) I call, name, especially in the pass., (c) I tell, command.

Furthermore, to put the cherry on top, Jesus directly contradicted them by denying equality with God in no vague or uncertain terms.

John 14
28Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.
Wow, a response 50 posts later ...

Of you, I take Jesus [God Incarnate] advice: "Follow Me, and let the dead bury their own dead." - [Matthew 8:22 NKJV]

because ... "He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God." - [John 3:18 NKJV] [See John 1 for clarification on who the 'only begotten Son of God' really is!]
 
If Jesus was so clear in his NON-GODHOOD, why did the native speakers listening to his actual words keep getting it wrong and trying to stone Jesus for claiming equality with God?

Your position is nonsensical.
That my friend was a real good question .
And lets add to this some of JESUS own words from heaven .
I AM ALPHA and OMEGA , the First and the Last .........
Now who have we heard say them words back in the days of the prophets .
GOD did .
 
Wow, a response 50 posts later ...

Of you, I take Jesus [God Incarnate] advice: "Follow Me, and let the dead bury their own dead." - [Matthew 8:22 NKJV]

because ... "He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God." - [John 3:18 NKJV] [See John 1 for clarification on who the 'only begotten Son of God' really is!]
Look at those letters in dark dark bold print black .
THEN know and understand the lips of that pope and those of interfaith religious dialogue , DENY GOD HIMSELF .
as they preach the lie that all religoins serve the same GOD we do in different ways .
Guess they forgot the part about those who BELEIVE NOT .
Guess many have forgotten the part where even JOHN wrote and said
HE who beleives not the testimony that GOD gave of the SON , IS CALLLING GOD a liar .
If one is calling GOD a liar , SURE SEEMS THEY DONT KNOW HIM at all . SO
on that note i suggest any and all FLEE THE TABERNACLES of the finding common ground INTERFAITH anti christ lie .
 
The Messiah was given dominion and glory and a kingdom.
If He was given such things… Who was the Giver?
When was the Messiah given that?

By definition, if a being was given authority, then that authority was not eternal, and not intrinsic to such being. Then we can rest assured that such being is not God.
Morning my brother,
question, "if the Lord Jesus was GIVEN Authority and sits on the throne per Revelation 4:11, and this same Jesus who is the Lamb Per Revelation chapter 5 stands before the very throne he sits on, so, who then GAVE him POWER/ authority. for the One who sits on the throne is ALL KNOWING, and all Powerful.

this question is not for an argument, but for serious discussion. look at the facts first before you answer.

in Much GL.

101G.
 
...'pelach' in Daniel 7:14.

To be the recipient of pelach (Dan. 6:16) means to be the proper recipient of prayer (Dan. 6:10), right?
I don't know.
I guess it depends on when the Messiah was considered to be Mediator between God and man.
I don't think Daniel considered the Messiah the Mediator of his prayer to God in Daniel 6:10.

If the overwhelming majority of instances of prayer in the New Testament are directed to The Father, I can't see how Daniel, centuries before Christ, would have made the Messiah the recipient of his prayer.
 
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