Yet Jesus called that an accusation. In other words, Jesus referred to their accusations of him claiming to be equal with God as an accusation. It's all in the Greek. Why would Jesus say their claims is blasphemy when it is not? I would also add, that many modern versions that are not the KJV use the word accuse.
John 10 (KJV)
36S
ay ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world,
Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
accuse [Me]
λέγετε (legete)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 2nd Person Plural
Strong's Greek 3004: (a) I say, speak; I mean, mention, tell, (b) I call, name, especially in the pass., (c) I tell, command.
Furthermore, to put the cherry on top, Jesus directly contradicted them by denying equality with God in no vague or uncertain terms.
John 14
28Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come
again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for
my Father is greater than I.