I agree, we are not saved by our works. We are saved THROUGH faith, and faith is not static, passive, inactive, or just a mental process.
Sugar coated double talk. Faith is the assurance of things hoped for, the conviction of things not seen. (Hebrews 11:1) Faith is not works.
Faith is not something that happens only in your head and heart.
You conflate faith and works, and the end result is salvation by works, contrary to scripture. (Romans 4:5-6; 11:6)
Faith REQUIRES action (James 2:26) to be alive, and thus worth anything.
In regard to James 2:26, the comparison of the human spirit and faith converge around their modes of operation. The spirit (Greek pneuma) may also be translated "breath." As a breathless body exhibits no indication of life, so fruitless faith exhibits no indication of life. The source of the life in faith is not works; rather, life in faith is the source of works. (Ephesians 2:5-10) You put the cart before the horse.
And this active, alive faith must be present BEFORE salvation is received (Eph 2:8-9).
Faith is alive in Christ FIRST (saved by grace through faith, not works - Ephesians 2:5-9) then afterwards, this living faith goes on to produce good works. (Ephesians 2:10) What you teach is salvation by faith and works, contrary to scripture. (Romans 4:5-6; Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9 etc..)
Confession of Jesus as Lord with the mouth (a physical action) MUST happen before salvation is received (Rom 10:9-10), because confession of Jesus as Lord LEADS TO receiving salvation.
I hear folks misinterpret Romans 10:9-10 in such a way which means we can believe unto righteousness today, but are still lost until we confess Christ, which may be next week and then we are finally saved next week, but that is not what Paul is talking about here. Also, someone who is mute (unable to speak) would remain lost according to that erroneous interpretation of Romans 10:9,10 for failing to
"verbally confess with their
mouth." Confessing with our mouth that Jesus is Lord and believing in our heart that God raised Him from the dead are
not two separate steps to salvation but are chronologically together. Romans 10:8 - But what does it say? "THE WORD IS NEAR YOU,
in your mouth and in your heart" (TOGETHER) that is, the word of faith which we are preaching,
(notice the reverse order from verse 9-10) - that if you
confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
Confess/believe; believe/confess.
Water baptism is part of the faith that brings about salvation (1 Pet 3:21, Mark 16:16, Matt 28:19, Col 2:11-14, Rom 6:1-4).
Water baptism is "part" of the faith? So, you conflate faith with baptism as well. This explains why you teach salvation by works. In your CoC 4-step plan of salvation, you have baptism as the last step after confession that must be performed before one is saved. So how can confession be made
unto salvation (Romans 10:10) when you still must be water baptized afterward in order to be saved?
In 1 Peter 3:21, Peter tells us that baptism now saves you, yet when Peter uses this phrase,
he continues in the same sentence to explain exactly what he means by it. He said that baptism now saves you-
not the removal of dirt from the flesh (that is, not as an outward, physical act which washes dirt from the body--that is not what saves you),
"but an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (that is, as an inward, spiritual transaction between God and the individual, a transaction that is
symbolized by the outward ceremony of water baptism). Just as the eight people in the ark were "saved
THROUGH water" as they were
IN THE ARK. They were not literally saved "by" the water. Hebrews 11:7 is clear on this point (..built an
ARK for the
SAVING of his household). The context reveals that ONLY the righteous (Noah and his family) were
DRY and therefore
SAFE. In contrast,
ONLY the wicked in Noah's day
came in contact with the water and they all perished.
Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved
(general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who
does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely necessary for salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief and not on a lack of baptism. *NOWHERE does the Bible say, "baptized or condemned." If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then we would expect Jesus to mention it in the following verses. (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) Yet what is the 1 requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements *
BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics. John 3:18 - He who
believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO)
does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO)
because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
In Matthew 28:19-20, we have here a command of Christ to go and make disciples of all nations and baptize them. However, it does not say here that baptism is absolutely necessary for salvation. Belief is absolutely necessary for salvation. (Mark 16:16(b); John 3:18)
In regard to Colossians 2:11-14, the context shows that baptism is presented as the New Testament counterpart of circumcision in the Old Testament. They are presented in a careful parallel to each other. The one who is "in Christ" is circumcised with a circumcision
made "without hands" and the parallel usage of circumcision and baptism demonstrates that we understand the "baptism" to be
made "without hands" also.
Romans 2:28-29 shows clearly that it is not physical circumcision "made with hands" but
*spiritual circumcision* which makes one truly a Jew and one of Abraham's children. Since baptism is the New Testament counterpart to circumcision in the Old Testament, we may therefore understand Romans 2:28-29 to have the same meaning in relation to baptism that it has in relation to circumcision: For he is
*not a Jew who is one outwardly, nor is that circumcision which is outward in the flesh;* but he is a Jew who is one *inwardly, and circumcision is that of the heart, in the Spirit,* and not in the letter, whose praise is not from men but from God. Physical circumcision was not the means of obtaining salvation in the Old Testament, for Abraham was saved when he BELIEVED before he was circumcised (Genesis 15:6; Romans 4:2-3; 9-10). The same applies to physical water baptism in the New Testament (Acts 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31).
In regard to Romans 6:1-4, before mentioning baptism in chapter 6, Paul had repeatedly emphasized that
faith, not baptism is the instrumental cause of salvation/justification (Romans 1:16, 3:22-30; 4:4-6, 13; 5:1; 10:4). That is when the old man was put to death and united in the likeness of His death, which water baptism
symbolizes and pictures. Righteousness is "imputed to us who believe in Him who raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead, who was delivered up because of our offenses, and was raised up because of our justification." (Romans 4:24,25) Since believers receive the benefits of Christ’s death and resurrection (justification), and that through
faith, believers must be spiritually united to Him (delivered and raised up with Him). If baptism is taken as the instrumental cause, then Paul contradicts what he had established before, namely that
justification is by faith, not baptism.