praise_yeshua
Well-known member
If it was impossible for Christ to not do the Father's will, why did He have to say "nevertheless not my will but yours be done"?
You're not really dealing with the ramifications of what you're stating.
That Christ chose to only ever do the Father's will is the difference between the First and the Second Adam. He was not compelled to doing the Father's will because of being God, He chose to do the Father's will because he loved Him as a man with all His heart and soul and strength and mind.
You're presenting a scenario wherein Jesus Christ, the Incarnate Son of God's will was different than the Father's. That is SIN. No controversy whatsoever. A divergent will is SIN.... You're creating a innate quality of resistance within the humanity of Jesus Christ. That is sin.
Jesus Christ said those words in the presence of those who HEARD HIM. It was a statement of Unity of wills. An open expression of the reality of His relationship to the Father.
This was something that He was establishing FOR MAN... Not something MAN ALREADY HAD...
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