Yet here you are. LOLIt’s not advantageous; basically, it’s pretty worthless and, imo, a waste of time.
s e l a h
Yet here you are. LOLIt’s not advantageous; basically, it’s pretty worthless and, imo, a waste of time.
s e l a h
… but not engaging in a thing of nought. : )Yet here you are. LOL
Yet here you are trying to discuss something you know nothing about apparently. My question was simple. Except for you I guess.… but not engaging in a thing of nought. : )
s e l a h
He wants to defend his theology.If you are a child of God, why are you obsessed with this nonsensical question?
”for it is God who works in you both to will and to do for His good pleasure.” Philippians 2:13
s e l a h
This post is born out of ignorance. Explain the difference between moral and natural ability.He wants to defend his theology.
He holds that God has determined everyone incapable of believing on God/Christ unless he has been unconditionally predestined before the foundation of the earth to do so.
Yet at the same time, claim man has a natural ability to do so.
See, there he goes.This post is born out of ignorance. Explain the difference between moral and natural ability.
Can you explain the difference between moral and natural ability?See, there he goes.
Trying to defend his theology while denying the meaning behind natural inability which was given to him multiple times.
The difference is a false concept. The limitation established in John 6:65 is not about ability; rather, it is about desire. Romans 3:9-20, specifically verse 11 says "no one seeks God". When we look at the history of mankind, we find every in tribe, every community, every nation those who look for that divine source of ultimate power, i.e., a god. So that Romans 3 does not say that "no one seeks a god" since all of mankind almost universally seeks a god. The truth is that no one can seek God unless God tells us who and what He is. That is the message of John 6:44-45 and 6:65. God had done that throughout the OT. The culmination of that is the coming of Jesus Christ and the resulting NT. God has told us who and what He is. We can now, with the OT and the NT in hand, seek God. That is the message reiterated in Romans 10:17. So it is not about ability; rather, it is about the desire, the longing, the yearning, to do so.Can you explain the difference between moral and natural ability?
I agree with "will not".The difference is a false concept. The limitation established in John 6:65 is not about ability; rather, it is about desire. Romans 3:9-20, specifically verse 11 says "no one seeks God". When we look at the history of mankind, we find every in tribe, every community, every nation those who look for that divine source of ultimate power, i.e., a god. So that Romans 3 does not say that "no one seeks a god" since all of mankind almost universally seeks a god. The truth is that no one can seek God unless God tells us who and what He is. That is the message of John 6:44-45 and 6:65. God had done that throughout the OT. The culmination of that is the coming of Jesus Christ and the resulting NT. God has told us who and what He is. We can now, with the OT and the NT in hand, seek God. That is the message reiterated in Romans 10:17. So it is not about ability; rather, it is about the desire, the longing, the yearning, to do so.
John 5:24 Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life. He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life.I agree with "will not".
John 3:20 states [NKJV] "For everyone practicing evil hates the light and does not come to the light, lest his deeds should be exposed." ... and who is "everyone practicing evil"?
According to Ephesians 2:1-3, "everyone practicing evil" is EVERYONE ... [NKJV] "And you [He made alive], who were dead in trespasses and sins, in which you once walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit who now works in the sons of disobedience, among whom also we all once conducted ourselves in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, just as the others." ... prior to God making them "alive".
So if:
- then EVERYONE will not come to God!
- Until or unless GOD does something to change them ... "make alive" [Eph 2] or "draw" [John 6] or "give" [John 10]
Is it? Saying it dont make it so.The difference is a false concept. The limitation established in John 6:65 is not about ability; rather, it is about desire. Romans 3:9-20, specifically verse 11 says "no one seeks God". When we look at the history of mankind, we find every in tribe, every community, every nation those who look for that divine source of ultimate power, i.e., a god. So that Romans 3 does not say that "no one seeks a god" since all of mankind almost universally seeks a god. The truth is that no one can seek God unless God tells us who and what He is. That is the message of John 6:44-45 and 6:65. God had done that throughout the OT. The culmination of that is the coming of Jesus Christ and the resulting NT. God has told us who and what He is. We can now, with the OT and the NT in hand, seek God. That is the message reiterated in Romans 10:17. So it is not about ability; rather, it is about the desire, the longing, the yearning, to do so.
Amen.John 5:24 Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life. He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life.
John 5:25 "Truly, truly, I say to you, an hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live.
Ya think? I can not get them to do it. LOLMaybe defining " moral " ability will help the discussion
Moral ability is an individual's innate or developed capacity to understand right from wrong and to act ethically, often involving the application of principles of goodness and fairness to guide one's decisions and behaviors in life and social interactions.
innate means natural, inborn.
so natural and moral are synonyms.![]()
I just provided the definition. How are they different in your opinion ? ThanksYa think? I can not get them to do it. LOL
And the are not synonymous terms.
I meed your definition for natural ability which is not provided.I just provided the definition. How are they different in your opinion ? Thanks
in your moral definition does that mean someone willing can ?I meed your definition for natural ability which is not provided.
Natural = can
Moral = a willing disposition
Is desire not natural?Is it? Saying it dont make it so.
Desire equals moral ability
Don't make it not so either.Is it? Saying it dont make it so.