I would appreciate feedback on the letter below that I am writing to a minister (who calls himself "paster") of a Church I have been attending for some time. I met with this man, along with a couple of the Elders of the congregation, to discuss this error in their teaching, but they refused to listen, or even to open their Bibles to explore God's Word more thoroughly. I was quite exasperated with them, but I hold out hope that they will come to an understanding of the truth.
Below is the bulk of the letter:
I am very confused by something that I have heard you preaching on recently. You have said, and others preaching at Bethlehem have also preached, that faith is an action term, and I agree wholeheartedly. It is not a passive, mental only, concept. But it requires action to be made real and complete as James 2:26 states clearly. You have even cited Eph 2:8-9 where we are told that salvation is a grace (gift) of God that is received through faith. This, I hope you would agree, means that faith must be demonstrated BEFORE the grace of salvation is received, and if there is no demonstration of faith then salvation is not received.
There are three things that Scripture says are required for an individual to receive salvation: Repentance (Acts 3:19), Confession of Jesus' name (Rom 10:9-10), and Baptism (Acts 2:38, Mark 16:16). For Scripture to be infallible, ALL parts of Scripture must be true at the same time. This means that the doctrine based on John 3:16 is not complete without including Acts 3:19 in the conversation, and they are not complete without Rom 10:9-10, and they are not complete without Acts 2:38 (and if there were any other passages that gave another condition for the reception of salvation, those would have to be included also).
Yet you then skip over faith in your invitation call, going directly to receiving salvation without any demonstration of faith exhibited. I find this discrepancy confusing. If the faith that Scripture says is required to receive the gift of salvation is not exhibited, then salvation is not received. These are the minimum requirements of faith that Scripture (not Jon) says are required to receive the gift of salvation.
I understand your reluctance to accept these facts. Many people believe that if there is any action required of man to receive salvation that would constitute earning salvation and negate grace. But when we consider the examples in the Old Testament, like the Israelite's taking possession of the Promised Land, we can see how God has worked in the past. God frequently freely gives a gift, but He puts conditions upon the reception of that gift.
Did God give Israel the Land? Yes.
Did they deserve the Land? No.
Did they possess the Land when He gave it to them? No.
Did they have to take any action to receive the Land? Yes.
Was the Land theirs regardless of what they did? Yes.
Would they have been able to use and take advantage of owning the Land if they had not done what was commanded? No, (see the taking of AI).
Was their obedience a condition of taking possession of the Land? Yes.
Did their obedience "earn" the possession of the land? No.
Also consider the taking of Jericho, and the widow who poured out the oil to fill all the jars she could gather, and the many other examples: the gift is freely given, but there is almost always a condition placed upon the reception of the benefit of the gift.
When we determine our doctrine we must always consider ALL of Scripture that pertains to the doctrine under consideration. It doesn't matter at all what logical sounding idea we come up with, if the idea does not match with all of Scripture then the idea is wrong.
Let me give an example: what did the accusation against Jesus that was nailed to the cross above His head say?
Mark 15:26 says simply "THE KING OF THE JEWS". Yet John 19:19 says, "JESUS THE NAZARENE, THE KING OF THE JEWS" and verse 20 says it was written in Hebrew, Latin, and Greek (while Mark says nothing about languages). Does that mean that Mark is wrong? Or is John adding unnecessary (or false) information because Mark didn't mention it? No. The fact that Mark did not mention multiple languages, or Jesus' name, or the fact that He was from Nazareth is completely immaterial. These facts must not have been relevant to Mark's initial audience (or else the author, the Holy Spirit, would have instructed Mark to include those facts). ALL Scripture that refers to what the accusation said must be consulted before we determine what we believe about what the accusation said. So we cannot just take Mark's account as explaining everything that was said in the accusation.
Similarly, we cannot just take John 3:16 (or any other passage that only says "believe" as a prerequisite to receiving salvation) as explaining everything that is required to receive salvation. John 3:16 mentions only belief (translated from pistis, which is faith, not a passive mental assent), but it does not tell us what form that faith must take. Acts 2:38 tells us that the faith required to receive salvation must include repentance and baptism. Mark 16:16 says that belief and baptism are required. Rom 10:9-10 says that belief and confession of Jesus' name are required. No single verse spells out everything that is required to receive salvation, but Acts 2:38 comes the closest, because it says the people had already believed (they were pricked in the heart (verse 37)), and then were commanded to repent and be baptized in Jesus' name. 1 Pet 3:21 tells us that it is through water baptism that we receive salvation. Just as Noah had to pass through the Flood to be saved from his wicked generation, so too we must pass through the water of baptism to be saved from our sins.