One God
- Thread starter praise_yeshua
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By claiming He is the Son of Man (Mark 14:62; cf. Daniel 7:13) demonstrates Jesus' claim to be God -> Almighty God.
The Son of Man is the proper recipient of 'pelach' (Daniel 7:14). One of the ways of offering 'pelach' is by prayer (Daniel 6:10, 16).
To be the proper recipient of prayer means to be Almighty God. (post 20).
civic
Well-known member
How can He be God ( YHWH ) and not God ( YHWH ) ?
Matthias
Well-known member
That’s the right question to ask. The answer is found in the Jewish law of agency.
Matthias
Well-known member
“A person’s agent is regarded as the person himself.”
civic
Well-known member
do you have an OT passage in mind and not a Jewish source outside of scripture regarding "the law of agency" ?
Matthias
Well-known member
“In other words, under shaliah Yeshua is ‘God’ without being God.”
skipmoen.com
Shaliah | Hebrew Word Study | Skip Moen
As You sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world. John 17:18 NASB Sent – The Jewish law of agency, known as shaliah, is crucial for understanding the idea of an apostle. In fact, the verb itself, apostéllō, used here to speak of the mission of Yeshua and the mission of his
skipmoen.com
Matthias
Well-known member
Agency is found throughout scripture, both OT and NT. For an OT example I would point to Moses in Exodus 7.
civic
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except he never claimed to be God and no one referred to him as God, worshiped him etc.....
The concept of Agency does not apply at all in the area of prayer that is directly rendered unto the Lord Jesus since one can just as easily render prayer directly unto the Father. An agent would be a party when the other party is not there and/or cannot be reached.
An "agent" is therefore unnecessary.
Matthias
Well-known member
In most translations the “as” is italicized. It is added by the translators to convey understanding. God made Moses God to Pharaoh. Moses was God’s agent. Yahweh is Moses’ God. Yahweh is also Jesus’ God.
Have you ever heard Jesus referred to as “the new Moses”?
Irrelevant, because others can be referred to as G/god.
But the Lord Jesus is "my God" (John 20:28).
Whenever this expression is used by a believer in the OT it always referred to the Almighty. Thomas would most likely have known this. Jesus would have definitely known this.
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Matthias
Well-known member
Had you exercised patience last night you would have found out that I believe John 20:28 is one of the passages where Jesus is called theos. You make my point for me when you say that “others can be referred to as God/god.”
You had time to ramble on and ignore what I wrote concerning the NT by more than once going to the Old Testament, so the blame is on you.
Great, because being "my God" proves He is the Almighty. - See my previous post.
Matthias
Well-known member
I didn’t ignore what you wrote. You didn’t acknowledge the connection between the Messiah being referred to as elohim in the OT and theos in the NT. I did. Heb. elohim = Gk. theos.
That means you ignored it and ran somewhere else.
That's okay. Those who deny Jesus is God often employ this pitiful tactic.
Nothing new.
No surprise.
Matthias
Well-known member
What it actually means is that I addressed it in a broader scope than you did.
Copout and a dodge.
See post 20.
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