Jesus denied being God

Concerning this that you quoted above... it says I will raise up a Prophet. It does not say I will raise up a God.
So, we are still awaiting God to raise up a prophet like Moses? No, Jesus Christ fulfilled every prophecy of His coming and His identity. I you take Messiah as referring to Him, then Jesus Himself is declaring He is God. Only God can defeat and overcome death. And Scripture does say that Jesus Christ raised Himself from the dead. Only God can do this. It also says the Father raised Him and the Holy Spirit raised Him. So, even on this point alone Jesus' declaration of Deity is proved.
I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him., Deut. 18:18.

The book of Hebrews is wrong when it says Jesus was “made like his brothers in every respect” if Jesus knew he was God (Hebrews 2:17). Jesus was not made like other humans in every way if Jesus was 100% God and 100% human at the same time. In fact, he would have been very different from other humans in many respects.
Splitting hairs. The context is about being a man and Jesus is a man, the Man of Sorrows, another reference to His Deity according to Hebrew religion and Scripture. And in both the Hebrew Scripture and in the New Covenant writings from Matthew to Revelation are passages that identify both Messiah's humanity, His Deity, and His humanity and Deity together. But there is only one point of truth to Jesus' Deity and that is that He raised Himself from the dead. So...

One question to you: Does God have power to raise the dead?

19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up. John 2:19.

Yes, God does have power to raise the dead.
 
That Jesus is properly referred to as "my God" is taught (John 20:28).

Thomas...​

Jesus is God's messenger/agent/representative (Jewish Law of agency - shaliah). We can clearly see this Jewish principle through the entire gospel of John. Jesus was sent by God as His messenger and therefore Jesus was God’s representative on earth. God gave Jesus the right and authority to act in His name and that is why Jesus declared that whoever receives him automatically receives God the Father, that whoever sees him sees the Father, that whoever believes in him actually believes in the Father who sent him and whoever rejects him rejects the Father who sent him (John 12:44-45; 14:7; 1 John 2:23).

It's therefore true that whoever sees the Son sees God the Father. However, there is another dimension to this mutual relationship between them. In the New Testament we read that Jesus as the Son of God is the image of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15) who is the radiance of his glory and the express image of his nature (Hebrews 1:3). That in the face of Jesus Christ the glory of God can be seen (2 Corinthians 4:6), that the Son came to reveal and show us God the Father who is spirit and whom no one has ever seen (John 1:18), and therefore it's in him that we can know God the Father and that he is the only "way" to the Father, that in his human body dwells the Father himself... "all the fullness of the Godhead bodily" (Colossians 2:9) who acts through him. Therefore, it makes perfect sense that whoever sees and believes in the Son automatically sees and believes in God the Father.

This was also understood by the apostle Thomas (John 20:28 compared with John 14:5-9) who finally realized and believed that in Jesus he saw the one true God... the Father, who dwelled in him and He is doing everything through His Son (including his resurrection). It's also our duty to realize that Jesus Christ is the visible image of the (otherwise) invisible God and that we can know the one true God and reach Him only through His Son Jesus Christ.
 
So, we are still awaiting God to raise up a prophet like Moses? No, Jesus Christ fulfilled every prophecy of His coming and His identity. I you take Messiah as referring to Him, then Jesus Himself is declaring He is God. Only God can defeat and overcome death. And Scripture does say that Jesus Christ raised Himself from the dead. Only God can do this. It also says the Father raised Him and the Holy Spirit raised Him. So, even on this point alone Jesus' declaration of Deity is proved.

Splitting hairs. The context is about being a man and Jesus is a man, the Man of Sorrows, another reference to His Deity according to Hebrew religion and Scripture. And in both the Hebrew Scripture and in the New Covenant writings from Matthew to Revelation are passages that identify both Messiah's humanity, His Deity, and His humanity and Deity together. But there is only one point of truth to Jesus' Deity and that is that He raised Himself from the dead. So...

One question to you: Does God have power to raise the dead?

19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up. John 2:19.

Yes, God does have power to raise the dead.
The obvious difficulty in John 2:19 is that Jesus said “I” will raise up this sanctuary, which causes some problems. One of them is that the other times the Bible speaks of Jesus getting up from the dead it is the Father, God, who raises Jesus, he does not raise himself. Many verses plainly state that it was God who raised Jesus. Acts 2:32; 4:10; 5:30; Rom. 10:9; 1 Cor. 6:14; Gal. 1:1; 1 Thess. 1:9-10. Also, another problem caused by Jesus saying “I will raise it up” is that Jesus died on the cross and so if Jesus was dead then he could not raise himself from the dead.

When a single passage seems to say something that is difficult and/or contradicts many other passages, we should not reinterpret the many clear passages so that they agree with the one contradictory verse. If we base our theology on an unclear or obscure text and ignore the clear passages, we inevitably fall into error. When dealing with a difficult passage that contradicts many clear passages, the correct approach is to consider other possibilities such as transmission errors, translation errors, or simply that the passage means something that we have not considered. Even if after considering other possibilities the obscure passage remains puzzling, we should not abandon the many clear passages and accept a contradictory interpretation.
 
It has been recorded that Jesus denied that he is God in the verses below from the KJV:

Matthew 19​
17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.​
Mark 10​
18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.​
Luke 18​
19 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.​

Based on the above Scripture, we can find the following information:

Jesus rhetorically questions why he is being called "good" and says that only God is good. This means that Jesus is distinguishing himself from God and that absolute goodness belongs exclusively to God. In saying this, Jesus denies that he possesses the absolute goodness that God has.

This distinction that Jesus pointed out between himself and God is evident in his rhetorical question about why he is being called good. If Jesus were God, then it would not be consistent for him to deny being called good and thus deny having this divine attribute of God.

Since Jesus denied having the absolute goodness of God, Jesus strongly inferred that he is just a teacher and a prophet. In John 8:28, Jesus stated, "I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things." Therefore, Jesus was himself taught by his God and Father. Needing to be taught by God means that Jesus is not omniscient and didn't inherently know the things he himself was teaching until he was taught.

Therefore, Jesus denied being God.
I think that after 113 pages the answer, actually, the rebuttal to Runningman's post has already been answered and so now it comes down to one of two conclusions.

Either receive the rebuttal that Jesus is God or not.

But let me point out a couple of things with regard to this post. But first, here is the exchange in Matthew:

16 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?
17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
18 He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
19 Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
20 The young man saith unto him, All these things have I kept from my youth up: what lack I yet?
21 Jesus said unto him, If thou wilt be perfect, go and sell that thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come and follow me.
22 But when the young man heard that saying, he went away sorrowful: for he had great possessions.
23 Then said Jesus unto his disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven.
24 And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
25 When his disciples heard it, they were exceedingly amazed, saying, Who then can be saved?
26 But Jesus beheld them, and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible.
Mt 19:16–26.

In this exchange Jesus is not denying He is God, quite the opposite. He is either telling the truth in every word from His mouth or He is lying, and this post should be more about whether Jesus is speaking the truth or not. But let's have a more complete telling of this exchange since it is recorded in the synoptics.
So, take a closer look at what Jesus is saying and let's see if He is telling the truth or lying:

18 And a certain ruler asked him, saying, Good Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?
19 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.
20 Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Honour thy father and thy mother.
21 And he said, All these have I kept from my youth up.
22 Now when Jesus heard these things, he said unto him, Yet lackest thou one thing: sell all that thou hast, and distribute unto the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come, follow me.
23 And when he heard this, he was very sorrowful: for he was very rich.
24 And when Jesus saw that he was very sorrowful, he said, How hardly shall they that have riches enter into the kingdom of God!
25 For it is easier for a camel to go through a needle’s eye, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God. 26 And they that heard it said, Who then can be saved?
27 And he said, The things which are impossible with men are possible with God.
Lk 18:18–27.

17 And when he was gone forth into the way, there came one running, and kneeled to him, and asked him, Good Master, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life?
18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.
19 Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Defraud not, Honour thy father and mother.
20 And he answered and said unto him, Master, all these have I observed from my youth.
21 Then Jesus beholding him loved him, and said unto him, One thing thou lackest: go thy way, sell whatsoever thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come, take up the cross, and follow me.
22 And he was sad at that saying, and went away grieved: for he had great possessions.
23 And Jesus looked round about, and saith unto his disciples, How hardly shall they that have riches enter into the kingdom of God!
24 And the disciples were astonished at his words. But Jesus answereth again, and saith unto them, Children, how hard is it for them that trust in riches to enter into the kingdom of God!
25 It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God. 26 And they were astonished out of measure, saying among themselves, Who then can be saved?
27 And Jesus looking upon them saith, With men it is impossible, but not with God: for with God all things are possible.
Mk 10:17–27.

Luke identifies this man as a "ruler" and since Israel was occupied territory and Rome installed those that would "rule" the country this was a "ruler" who most likely was of the religious order (Sanhedrin.) He certainly wasn't a political "ruler." Some have posited this was Herod Antipas, but it doesn't say. But Jesus' anticipation that this "ruler" knew the Moral Law is clear in His response to his question (yes, everyone in Israel would have a should have known these things but the Greek word for "ruler" is "archōn" meaning "a first (in rank or power.)" And his question was sincere and not one who was trying to trap Jesus in His response. So, this religious "ruler" asked about "inheriting" eternal life.

As a descendant of Abraham through one of Jacob's twelve sons he asked about "inheriting" eternal life and this is exactly what eternal life was to the Jews. It was their inheritance of the Abraham and Mosaic Covenants and the eternal life that is promised to Israel.

In response Jesus does two things: First, He directs the man to the Law of Moses, and then He directs the man to obey the Law of Moses thus destroying the false belief by non-Hebrew Gentiles - maybe even YOU - who say the Law is "abolished" or "obsolete" and is not to be obeyed. Here, Jesus clearly directs the man to the Law of Moses and instructs him to obey the Law of Moses thus establishing by Jesus the Law is and was not abolished nor obsolete for it would be disingenuous for Jesus to instruct the man as a rabbi that He is and then mere weeks later abolish or make the eternal promises of God in the Law abolished or obsolete when He went to the cross. So, the Law still is in effect for the Jews who are under this covenant. Under BOTH covenants.

The next t5hing is Jesus instructs the man to follow Him [Jesus.]
Why didn't He tell the man to follow Jehovah? If the people didn't already accept Jesus' Divinity Jesus' words would have caused a riot and He would have been stoned for usurping God. But there is nothing in the text of a riot, so Jesus' words were correctly understood by the people. Except the people did not have a problem with following Jesus as God but at what Jesus says at the end. Jesus instructs the man to do three things but only one of those things will bring the man his inheritance and that is "follow me" (Jesus.)

The man went away 'sorrowful' for, the text says, he had great possessions (indicating he was probably of the Sanhedrin for these were of the upper class and were very rich or well off.) Jesus turns to the people who witnessed this exchange and asked, "who then can be saved"? On one hand we have one who had great possessions and told to sell it all and then give the proceeds to the poor, and on the other hand we have "following Jesus." Which one would have brought the man his inheritance of eternal life? Well, only God can give eternal lifer and here Jesus is in effect declaring Himself God - and directing the ruler and the people to follow Him and receive their inheritance. And only God can give anyone of the twelve tribes their inheritance of eternal life. So, how did it end? The man later did sell all he had and gave it all to the poor and did indeed come to follow Jesus thus establishing the people's acceptance and Jesus' declarations that He is God.

But the question, "who then can be saved" is answered by Jesus. He says:

With men this [being saved] is impossible; but with God all things are possible.

So, Jesus' response takes the inheritance of salvation which is of the Jews out of the hand of men and places it where it belongs: with God. Thus, the theology and false belief of "accept Jesus into your heart" in order to be saved/born-again is a lie and verses like Romans 10:9-10 is not a formula for salvation that men can accomplish by merely speaking it and it will take place for them. Jesus clearly says, "with men this - being saved, salvation - is impossible, but it is possible only with God and salvation is not of men but of God and only God.

Among other things Jesus declares He is God and directs the ruler to follow Him and he will receive his inheritance as a Jew to eternal life. So, even here Jesus declares He is God, should be followed, and the Jew that does this receives his or her inheritance. After all, eternal life was promised by God to the Jews in covenant with Him and it is clear that Jesus is the one to make it happen if only one would give Him all their coveting of riches and direct it towards Himself. If the people thought Jesus was merely a man and claiming to be followed is the same as following God and He was telling lies He would have been stoned. But the people didn't stone Him. Instead, they came to learn more of their Messiah and Lord. They came to understand that their inheritance went through Jesus.
Jesus as the God of Israel and Executor of the inheritance for Israel of twelve tribes.

Jesus is God.

Or He's telling lies.

So, is Jesus telling lies?

Well?

Receive or reject. There is no medium.
 
Then Thomas would have said "my God" in reference to the Father in John 20:28, but he didn't.
Thomas saw Jesus and God who just raised him from the dead. And so Thomas said oh my Lord and my God. He did not mean them to be the same. But you do. And just on that little misunderstanding on your part you build a whole teaching that does not exist.
 
Thomas saw Jesus and God who just raised him from the dead.

Thomas saw Jesus.

And so Thomas said oh my Lord and my God.

He didn't say "oh."

He did not mean them to be the same.

Because Thomas was only speaking to Jesus.
It's time for you to get out of your delusion.

But you do.

Same Person? No.

And just on that little misunderstanding on your part you build a whole teaching that does not exist.

The misunderstanding is entirely yours.
 
Thomas saw Jesus.



He didn't say "oh."



Because Thomas was only speaking to Jesus.
It's time for you to get out of your delusion.



Same Person? No.



The misunderstanding is entirely yours.
In English in our country today it would have been written more like... oh my Lord and my God.

A very likely way to understand John 20:28 is that Thomas had realized the power of God working in Jesus, and in saying “my Lord and my God” he was pointing out that Jesus did, in fact, reveal God in a unique and powerful way. In seeing the resurrected Jesus, Thomas clearly saw both the Lord Jesus, and the God who raised Jesus from the dead, and he stated that fact.
 
In English in our country today it would have been written more like... oh my Lord and my God.

Not one version out of the many here agree with you.

Please supply one that does.



A very likely way to understand John 20:28 is that Thomas had realized the power of God working in Jesus, and in saying “my Lord and my God” he was pointing out that Jesus did, in fact, reveal God in a unique and powerful way.

Then there would be another way to express this because whenever a believer in the Bible uses the expression "my God" it always refers to the Almighty.
 
Not one version out of the many here agree with you.

Please supply one that does.





Then there would be another way to express this because whenever a believer in the Bible uses the expression "my God" it always refers to the Almighty.
The majority of the times Elohim occurs in the Bible, it refers to the true God. However, even a brief glance through a Hebrew concordance will show that many times it refers to false gods. Dozens of verses could be cited as examples, but a few are: “You must not have any other gods [Elohim] besides me” (Exod. 20:3); “You must not bow down to their gods [Elohim]” (Exod. 23:24); “Israel chose new gods [Elohim]” (Judg. 5:8); and, “[Solomon’s] wives turned away his heart after other gods [Elohim]” (1 Kings 11:4). There are times when Elohim is used to refer to a specific pagan god: for example, Dagon (Judg. 16:23; 1 Sam. 5:7), Chemosh (Judg. 11:24), and Baal (1 Kings 18:24-27).

Elohim, “God,” can also refer to angels or other spirit beings. One example is Psalm 8:5, which says God made mankind a little lower than Elohim. Given the flexible meaning of Elohim, the verse could be saying that God made mankind a little lower than He Himself, or it could be saying that He made mankind a little lower than his representatives in the spirit world, i.e., angels. Thankfully, the interpretation is not in doubt because the verse is quoted in Hebrews 2:7, which says “angels,” letting us know that in Psalm 8:5, Elohim refers to God’s representatives, the angels. Thus Psalm 8:5 is an excellent example of how the New Testament clarifies our understanding of the Old Testament. Another example is Judges 13:22, where Manoah and his wife saw an angel, but exclaimed, “We have seen God [Elohim].” Their statement made perfect sense in the biblical culture because they saw God’s representative.

There are times when God’s representatives are called “God” (Elohim and even Yahweh!) when they represent God and speak on His behalf. This is referred to as “agency.” The essence of the principle of agency is: “a person’s agent is regarded as the person himself.” The principle of agency is well-attested by scholars and occurs quite a few times in the Bible. For example, in Genesis 16:13, even though Hagar was speaking to an angel, she referred to him as Yahweh and El (God). In Genesis 31:11 an angel speaks to Jacob, but in Gen. 31:13 he says, “I am the God [El] of Bethel.” In Genesis 32:28, 30 it seems Jacob is wrestling with God [Elohim], but we learn from Hosea 12:3-4 that it was an angel representing God. Another example is that Exodus 13:21 says “Yahweh” went before Israel in the pillar of fire, but Exodus 14:19 and 23:20-23 let us know it was an angel, a representative of God. So “Yahweh” did go in front of Israel as represented by his angel protector. Similarly, if you read Judges 2:1-4, an angel speaks to the Israelites, but his speech is in the first person as if he were God Himself.

Elohim, “God,” can also refer to human rulers, kings, prophets, and people who represent God in some way. Thus Exodus 21:6; 22:8-9, almost certainly refer to God’s representatives as Elohim, “God” (Exod. 22:28 likely does too. In those verses, the accompanying verb is plural, not singular, so the traditional teaching of the Rabbis, that the meaning is “judges,” which is also in the KJ21c, is almost certainly correct). Psalm 82:1 is noteworthy because it uses Elohim twice; at the beginning of the verse to refer to the true God, and at the end of the verse to refer to rulers and people who represent him. The verse says, “Elohim [God] takes his stand in his own assembly. He judges in the midst of the Elohim [gods].” Furthermore, Ps. 82:6 says, “You are Elohim [gods], all of you are children of the Most High.” As sons of the Most High, these rulers are qualified to be called Elohim, [gods]. Psalm 97:7 also calls rulers Elohim.

There are times when specific individuals are called Elohim, “God.” One example is Moses. In Exodus 7:1, God is speaking to Moses and says, “See, I have made thee God [Elohim] to Pharaoh” (Darby). Given the uniplural nature of Elohim, another translation is, “See, I have made you a god [Elohim] to Pharaoh” (BBE, KJV), but the fact is that Moses, who represents Elohim (“God”) can legitimately be called Elohim (“God”) in the biblical culture. Another example is when King Saul wanted to speak to the dead prophet Samuel and went to a woman who was a medium and necromancer (1 Sam. 28:7-15). When she conjured up “Samuel” (actually a demon impersonating Samuel), the woman said, “I see Elohim coming up from the ground” (1 Sam. 28:13). This is a good example of a person being called Elohim, and we could translate it “God” and understand the custom of God’s representatives being called “God,” or a more easily understood translation for the English reader is simply, “a god;” the woman saw “a god” coming up who she thought was Samuel.

Given the language of the time, and given that Jesus did represent the Father and have divine authority, for Thomas to refer to Jesus as “god” is certainly understandable. In contrast, to assert that Thomas said that Jesus was “God,” and thus 1/3 of a triune God, seems incredible. As was noted above, in biblical times it was common to call God’s representatives “God,” and the Old Testament contains quite a few examples, such as when Jacob wrestled with “God” and it is clear that he was actually wrestling with an angel (Hos. 12:4).
 
The majority of the times Elohim occurs in the Bible, it refers to the true God. However, even a brief glance through a Hebrew concordance will show that many times it refers to false gods. Dozens of verses could be cited as examples, but a few are: “You must not have any other gods [Elohim] besides me” (Exod. 20:3); “You must not bow down to their gods [Elohim]” (Exod. 23:24); “Israel chose new gods [Elohim]” (Judg. 5:8); and, “[Solomon’s] wives turned away his heart after other gods [Elohim]” (1 Kings 11:4). There are times when Elohim is used to refer to a specific pagan god: for example, Dagon (Judg. 16:23; 1 Sam. 5:7), Chemosh (Judg. 11:24), and Baal (1 Kings 18:24-27).

Elohim, “God,” can also refer to angels or other spirit beings. One example is Psalm 8:5, which says God made mankind a little lower than Elohim. Given the flexible meaning of Elohim, the verse could be saying that God made mankind a little lower than He Himself, or it could be saying that He made mankind a little lower than his representatives in the spirit world, i.e., angels. Thankfully, the interpretation is not in doubt because the verse is quoted in Hebrews 2:7, which says “angels,” letting us know that in Psalm 8:5, Elohim refers to God’s representatives, the angels. Thus Psalm 8:5 is an excellent example of how the New Testament clarifies our understanding of the Old Testament. Another example is Judges 13:22, where Manoah and his wife saw an angel, but exclaimed, “We have seen God [Elohim].” Their statement made perfect sense in the biblical culture because they saw God’s representative.

There are times when God’s representatives are called “God” (Elohim and even Yahweh!) when they represent God and speak on His behalf. This is referred to as “agency.” The essence of the principle of agency is: “a person’s agent is regarded as the person himself.” The principle of agency is well-attested by scholars and occurs quite a few times in the Bible. For example, in Genesis 16:13, even though Hagar was speaking to an angel, she referred to him as Yahweh and El (God). In Genesis 31:11 an angel speaks to Jacob, but in Gen. 31:13 he says, “I am the God [El] of Bethel.” In Genesis 32:28, 30 it seems Jacob is wrestling with God [Elohim], but we learn from Hosea 12:3-4 that it was an angel representing God. Another example is that Exodus 13:21 says “Yahweh” went before Israel in the pillar of fire, but Exodus 14:19 and 23:20-23 let us know it was an angel, a representative of God. So “Yahweh” did go in front of Israel as represented by his angel protector. Similarly, if you read Judges 2:1-4, an angel speaks to the Israelites, but his speech is in the first person as if he were God Himself.


Elohim, “God,” can also refer to human rulers, kings, prophets, and people who represent God in some way. Thus Exodus 21:6; 22:8-9, almost certainly refer to God’s representatives as Elohim, “God” (Exod. 22:28 likely does too. In those verses, the accompanying verb is plural, not singular, so the traditional teaching of the Rabbis, that the meaning is “judges,” which is also in the KJ21c, is almost certainly correct). Psalm 82:1 is noteworthy because it uses Elohim twice; at the beginning of the verse to refer to the true God, and at the end of the verse to refer to rulers and people who represent him. The verse says, “Elohim [God] takes his stand in his own assembly. He judges in the midst of the Elohim [gods].” Furthermore, Ps. 82:6 says, “You are Elohim [gods], all of you are children of the Most High.” As sons of the Most High, these rulers are qualified to be called Elohim, [gods]. Psalm 97:7 also calls rulers Elohim.

There are times when specific individuals are called Elohim, “God.” One example is Moses. In Exodus 7:1, God is speaking to Moses and says, “See, I have made thee God [Elohim] to Pharaoh” (Darby). Given the uniplural nature of Elohim, another translation is, “See, I have made you a god [Elohim] to Pharaoh” (BBE, KJV), but the fact is that Moses, who represents Elohim (“God”) can legitimately be called Elohim (“God”) in the biblical culture. Another example is when King Saul wanted to speak to the dead prophet Samuel and went to a woman who was a medium and necromancer (1 Sam. 28:7-15). When she conjured up “Samuel” (actually a demon impersonating Samuel), the woman said, “I see Elohim coming up from the ground” (1 Sam. 28:13). This is a good example of a person being called Elohim, and we could translate it “God” and understand the custom of God’s representatives being called “God,” or a more easily understood translation for the English reader is simply, “a god;” the woman saw “a god” coming up who she thought was Samuel.

Given the language of the time, and given that Jesus did represent the Father and have divine authority, for Thomas to refer to Jesus as “god” is certainly understandable. In contrast, to assert that Thomas said that Jesus was “God,” and thus 1/3 of a triune God, seems incredible. As was noted above, in biblical times it was common to call God’s representatives “God,” and the Old Testament contains quite a few examples, such as when Jacob wrestled with “God” and it is clear that he was actually wrestling with an angel (Hos. 12:4).

Thomas didn't just refer t Jesus as 'God", but "my God."

Again, simple.
 
One should be very afraid if they deny what YHWH God, The heavenly Father,.... Jesus' dad. said and was recorded in Hebrews 1:8

But of the Son He says, “YOUR THRONE, O GOD, IS FOREVER AND EVER, AND THE RIGHTEOUS SCEPTER IS THE SCEPTER OF HIS KINGDOM.

That is God, the Heavenly Father talking of Jesus, His son..... and God the heavenly Father referring to Jesus as God.
 
The obvious difficulty in John 2:19 is that Jesus said “I” will raise up this sanctuary, which causes some problems. One of them is that the other times the Bible speaks of Jesus getting up from the dead it is the Father, God, who raises Jesus, he does not raise himself. Many verses plainly state that it was God who raised Jesus. Acts 2:32; 4:10; 5:30; Rom. 10:9; 1 Cor. 6:14; Gal. 1:1; 1 Thess. 1:9-10. Also, another problem caused by Jesus saying “I will raise it up” is that Jesus died on the cross and so if Jesus was dead then he could not raise himself from the dead.
Jesus as God said He'd raise Himself and He did. Your problem is that you do not accept Scripture that says He did.

19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
20 Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?
21 But he spake of the temple of his body. John 2:19–21.

17 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again.
18 No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father. John 10:17–18.

Jesus as God has power over life and death.
When a single passage seems to say something that is difficult and/or contradicts many other passages, we should not reinterpret the many clear passages so that they agree with the one contradictory verse. If we base our theology on an unclear or obscure text and ignore the clear passages, we inevitably fall into error. When dealing with a difficult passage that contradicts many clear passages, the correct approach is to consider other possibilities such as transmission errors, translation errors, or simply that the passage means something that we have not considered. Even if after considering other possibilities the obscure passage remains puzzling, we should not abandon the many clear passages and accept a contradictory interpretation.
Again, your problem is that you do not believe Scripture. And Scripture states:

The Father raised Jesus from the dead.
The Holy Spirit raised Jesus from the dead.
Jesus raised Himself from the dead.

So, there's no contradiction. All three Persons of the Trinity raised Jesus from the dead.
 
Jesus as God said He'd raise Himself and He did. Your problem is that you do not accept Scripture that says He did.

19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
20 Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?
21 But he spake of the temple of his body. John 2:19–21.

17 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again.
18 No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father. John 10:17–18.

Jesus as God has power over life and death.

Again, your problem is that you do not believe Scripture. And Scripture states:

The Father raised Jesus from the dead.
The Holy Spirit raised Jesus from the dead.
Jesus raised Himself from the dead.

So, there's no contradiction. All three Persons of the Trinity raised Jesus from the dead.
The reason you don't have a teaching on the trinity is because there is none. All you post are bits and pieces of words and half verses and all taken out of context or from bad translations or not understanding how the words were used at the time they were written. Thomas is a great example...

Jesus is God's messenger/agent/representative (Jewish Law of agency - shaliah) and we can clearly see this Jewish principle through the entire gospel of John. Jesus was sent by God as His messenger and therefore Jesus was God’s representative on earth because God gave Jesus the right and authority to act in His name and that is why Jesus declared that whoever receives him automatically receives God the Father. This is why whoever sees him sees the Father, and whoever believes in him actually believes in the Father, and whoever rejects him rejects the Father who sent him (John 12:44-45; 14:7; 1 John 2:23).

In the New Testament we read that Jesus as the Son of God is the image of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15) who is the radiance of His glory and the express image of His nature (Hebrews 1:3). That in the face of Jesus Christ the glory of God can be seen (2 Corinthians 4:6) because the Son came to reveal and show us God the Father who is spirit and whom no one has ever seen (John 1:18). Therefore, it's in him that we can know God the Father because he is the only way to the Father having his human body in "all the fullness of the Godhead bodily" (Colossians 2:9). Therefore, it makes perfect sense that whoever sees and believes in the Son automatically sees and believes in God the Father.

This was also understood by the Apostle Thomas (John 20:28 compared with John 14:5-9) who finally realized and believed that in Jesus he saw the one true God who was doing everything through His Son. It's also our duty to realize that Jesus Christ is the visible image of the otherwise invisible God and that we can know the one true God and reach Him only through His Son Jesus Christ.
 
Thomas didn't just refer t Jesus as 'God", but "my God."

Again, simple.
“My Lord and my God.” A very likely way to understand John 20:28 is that Thomas had realized the power of God working in Jesus, and in saying “my Lord and my God” he was pointing out that Jesus did reveal God in a unique and powerful way. In seeing the resurrected Jesus, Thomas clearly saw both the Lord Jesus, and the God who raised Jesus from the dead. Jesus always taught that he only did what God guided him to do, and said that if you had seen him you had seen the Father. In that light, there is good evidence that “doubting Thomas” was saying that in seeing Jesus he was also seeing the Father.

We have to remember that Thomas’ statement occurred in a moment of surprise and even perhaps shock. Only eight days earlier, Thomas had vehemently denied Jesus’ resurrection. Thomas could no longer deny that Jesus was alive and that God had raised him from the dead. Thomas, looking at the living Jesus, saw both Jesus and the God who raised him from the dead. When Thomas saw the resurrected Christ, he became immediately convinced that Jesus was raised from the dead. But did he suddenly have a revelation that Jesus was God? That would be totally outside of Thomas’ knowledge and belief. Jesus had never claimed to be God despite Trinitarian claims that he had.

In other places in the Bible where the apostles speak about the resurrection of Jesus, they do not declare “This proves Jesus is God!” Rather, they declare that God raised the Lord Jesus from the dead. The confession of the two disciples walking along the road to Emmaus demonstrated the thoughts of Jesus’ followers at the time. Speaking to the resurrected Christ, whom they mistook as just a traveler, they talked about Jesus. They said Jesus “was a prophet mighty in deed and word before God and they crucified him." The disciples thought Jesus was the Messiah, a “Prophet” and the Son of God, but not God Himself.

Are we to believe that somehow Jesus taught the Trinity, something that went against everything the disciples were taught and believed, but there is no mention of Jesus ever teaching it anywhere, and yet the disciples somehow got that teaching? That seems too incredible to believe. There is no evidence from the gospel accounts that Jesus’ disciples believed him to be God, and Thomas upon seeing the resurrected Christ was not birthing a new theology in a moment of surprise.
 
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