Jesus denied being God

Called wolf... like if I have a horse in this race. I could not care less if you believe the truth. I'm not here to convince you. I'm here for those who would enjoy hearing the truth.
Indeed you have helped confirm those who like the truth since many have exposed your confusion. I have learned much from the people who know God's essence when sharing in reaction to your posts. If you are the expert on Unitarianism, you have proven it to be a weak theory.
 
John 10:30
There is no reason to take this verse to mean that Christ was saying that he and the Father make up "one God." The phrase was a common one, and even today if someone used it, people would know exactly what they meant... he and his Father are very much alike. When Paul wrote to the Corinthians about his ministry there, he said that he had planted the seed and Apollos had watered it. Then he said, "... he who plants and he who waters are one..." (1 Corinthians 3:8 NKJV). In the Greek texts, the wording of Paul is the same as that in John 10:30, yet no one claims that Paul and Apollos make up "one being." Christ uses the concept of "being one" in other places, and from them one can see that "one purpose" is what is meant. John 11:52 says Jesus was to die to make all God's children "one." In John 17:11, 21 and 22, Jesus prayed to God that his followers would be "one" as he and God were "one." I think it's obvious that Jesus was not praying that all his followers would become one being in "substance" just as he and his Father were one being or "substance." I believe the meaning is clear: Jesus was praying that all his followers be one in purpose just as he and God were one in purpose.
As I said, the Lord declared He is God, and you can either receive or reject this biblical truth. There is no medium.
 
John 20:28 Lord, kurios: Principal ruler. Is used of man as the possessor owner or master. E. W. Bullinger., A Critical Lexicon and Concordance to the English and Greek New Testament: (London: Samuel Bagster & Sons, 1975), p. 466.

Also Young's Analytical Concordance to the Bible: page 620

Which does nothing to overthrow the use of "my God."


Be aware of this:

My Lord and my God First testimony to the Deity of the risen Lord. Possibly Thomas was using the words of Psalms 86:15 , which in the Septuagint read Kurie ho Theos, and claiming forgiveness for his unbelief on the ground of Exodus 34:6 , to which this verse of the Psalm refers.




Jesus being the Deity means He is "God; Supreme Being" (see #5).
https://www.dictionary.com/browse/deity?s=t




Thanks for mentioning Bullinger.
 
Last edited:
To @Runningman & Co., - No, He did not!!
It has been recorded that Jesus denied that he is God in the verses below from the KJV:

Matthew 19​
17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.​
Mark 10​
18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.​
Luke 18​
19 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.​

Based on the above Scripture, we can find the following information:

Jesus rhetorically questions why he is being called "good" and says that only God is good. This means that Jesus is distinguishing himself from God and that absolute goodness belongs exclusively to God. In saying this, Jesus denies that he possesses the absolute goodness that God has.

This distinction that Jesus pointed out between himself and God is evident in his rhetorical question about why he is being called good. If Jesus were God, then it would not be consistent for him to deny being called good and thus deny having this divine attribute of God.

Since Jesus denied having the absolute goodness of God, Jesus strongly inferred that he is just a teacher and a prophet. In John 8:28, Jesus stated, "I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things." Therefore, Jesus was himself taught by his God and Father. Needing to be taught by God means that Jesus is not omniscient and didn't inherently know the things he himself was teaching until he was taught.

Therefore, Jesus denied being God.
Question:-​
'And, behold, one came and said unto Him,
'Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?
Answer:-​
And He said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God:
but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
Question:-​
He saith unto Him, Which?
Answer:-​
Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
Question:-​
The young man saith unto him, All these things have I kept from my youth up: what lack I yet?
Answer:-​
Jesus said unto him, If thou wilt be perfect, go and sell that thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come and follow me.
* But when the young man heard that saying, he went away sorrowful: for he had great possessions.
Then said Jesus unto His disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven. And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
Question:-​
When his disciples heard it, they were exceedingly amazed, saying, Who then can be saved?
Answer:-​
But Jesus beheld them, and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible.
Question:-​
Then answered Peter and said unto him, Behold, we have forsaken all, and followed thee; what shall we have therefore?
Answer:-​
And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of His glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. And every one that hath forsaken houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my name's sake, shall receive an hundredfold, and shall inherit everlasting life. But many that are first shall be last; and the last shall be first.
(Mat 19:16-30) see also (Mark 10:17-28 & Luke 18:18-28)​

* These words were spoken during the period (Matt.6:21-20:34) when the Lord Jesus, Who had proclaimed the gospel of the Kingdom, and made known His person, was now suffering rejection. He Himself as their Messiah and King, and the gospel of the Kingdom which He had preached, was being rejected, and opportunity sought by the Scribes and Pharisees to have Him put to death. This must take place, but in God's time, in accord with the prophesies laid down in the Old Testament concerning Him, and not before. So the Lord's words and works were carefully orchestrated to not precipitate actions which needed to take place within God's timescale.

* I am reliably informed that the word, 'good' does not appear in the original text, yet it is repeated in both Mark and Luke's gospel. For the Lord to accept the word, 'good' in relation to Himself, in that potentially volatile situation would have been like lighting a tinder box, and accelerating His arrest and consequent death. That had to be avoided at all costs, that God's will be fully done. So, speaking as 'The Son of Man' (Matt.18:11), and not as 'The Son of God' he could say what He did without causing offence or precipitation of events.

* The Lord Jesus Christ came to confirm the promises made unto the Fathers, and to destroy the works of the devil. He only spoke the words and performed the works given to Him of His Father. So these words are as 'Divine' as any other revealed in this Divine record.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
 
Last edited:
This makes zero sense
It makes a lot of sense. I say the resurrected Christ was standing in front of Thomas who did not believe Jesus would get up from the dead. Thomas was so excited he was probably in shock as he saw Jesus in front of him and God who had done this. Then the guy on here who I wrote what you are quoting from says God works in his friends and he does not get excited when he sees them. I wrote back that his friends are not the resurrected son of God, the Messiah to Israel, and the now Lord and Christ to the Christian. And he writes back something like God works in his friends and he does not get excited when he sees them. That's when I wrote... Well, then you would have no reason to yell out my Lord and my God meaning because his friends have not just been raised from the dead.
 
Which does nothing to overthrow the use of "my God."


Be aware of this:

My Lord and my God First testimony to the Deity of the risen Lord. Possibly Thomas was using the words of Psalms 86:15 , which in the Septuagint read Kurie ho Theos, and claiming forgiveness for his unbelief on the ground of Exodus 34:6 , to which this verse of the Psalm refers.




Jesus being the Deity means He is "God; Supreme Being" (see #5).
https://www.dictionary.com/browse/deity?s=t




Thanks for mentioning Bullinger.
I do not believe Thomas is a teaching on the trinity. I believe he was a guy so excited probably in shock yelling out to Jesus as his Lord and yelling out to the Father as his God. Again Thomas is not a teaching on the trinity. All you folks ever put in front of me are bits and pieces of words and half verses that are scattered all over the Bible. Also there's no teaching on why God would come to the earth as a man. Such a concept accomplishes nothing. Romans says a man (Adam) caused sin to enter into the world, and also that a man would have to redeem it from sin. Some theologians teach that only God could pay for the sins of mankind, but the Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).

If there is a trinity then why not just come out and say it? Why do we have to jump all over the Bible cutting and pasting pieces of words that are scattered all over the Bible? Why not just teach it? I know enough about how the Bible is written in the New Testament and in the Gospels to know if there was a trinity it would have been taught. The Gospels would have clearly said...

Verily, verily I say unto you that I am Jesus and I'm also God.

The Epistles would have writings like...

Yay, I Paul do testify that Jesus who is God came down from heaven to be a man for us. And we do know and testify that this same Jesus who you crucified is God. And so let us bow our knee to the one and only true God-Man Jesus Christ.

And yet there's nothing like that anywhere. Not in the Old or New Testament. Not even one complete verse like that.
 
As I said, the Lord declared He is God, and you can either receive or reject this biblical truth. There is no medium.
It seems it would have been clearly stated in the Bible and in the earliest Christian creeds if the doctrine of the Trinity was genuine and central to Christian belief and especially if belief in it was necessary for salvation as many Trinitarians teach. God gave the Scriptures to the Jewish people, and the Jewish religion and worship that comes from that revelation does not contain any reference to or teachings about a triune God. Surely the Jewish people were qualified to read and understand it, but they never saw the doctrine of the Trinity.
 
Indeed you have helped confirm those who like the truth since many have exposed your confusion. I have learned much from the people who know God's essence when sharing in reaction to your posts. If you are the expert on Unitarianism, you have proven it to be a weak theory.
Just because you do not believe the truth of God's Word that I teach does not make me wrong. It just makes you blind to the truth of God's Word.
 
I do not believe Thomas is a teaching on the trinity. I believe he was a guy so excited probably in shock yelling out to Jesus as his Lord and yelling out to the Father as his God. Again Thomas is not a teaching on the trinity. All you folks ever put in front of me are bits and pieces of words and half verses that are scattered all over the Bible. Also there's no teaching on why God would come to the earth as a man. Such a concept accomplishes nothing. Romans says a man (Adam) caused sin to enter into the world, and also that a man would have to redeem it from sin. Some theologians teach that only God could pay for the sins of mankind, but the Bible specifically says that a man must do it. The book of Corinthians makes the same point Romans does when it says “For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead” (1 Corinthians 15:21).

If there is a trinity then why not just come out and say it? Why do we have to jump all over the Bible cutting and pasting pieces of words that are scattered all over the Bible? Why not just teach it? I know enough about how the Bible is written in the New Testament and in the Gospels to know if there was a trinity it would have been taught. The Gospels would have clearly said...

Verily, verily I say unto you that I am Jesus and I'm also God.

The Epistles would have writings like...

Yay, I Paul do testify that Jesus who is God came down from heaven to be a man for us. And we do know and testify that this same Jesus who you crucified is God. And so let us bow our knee to the one and only true God-Man Jesus Christ.

And yet there's nothing like that anywhere. Not in the Old or New Testament. Not even one complete verse like that.

Again, thanks for mentioning Bullinger.
 
It seems it would have been clearly stated in the Bible and in the earliest Christian creeds if the doctrine of the Trinity was genuine and central to Christian belief and especially if belief in it was necessary for salvation as many Trinitarians teach. God gave the Scriptures to the Jewish people, and the Jewish religion and worship that comes from that revelation does not contain any reference to or teachings about a triune God. Surely the Jewish people were qualified to read and understand it, but they never saw the doctrine of the Trinity.
As I said elsewhere the doctrine of the Trinity of God did not find its fullest expression until the advent of the Son (Jesus the Christ.)

This truth is in Scripture and it is hidden away until God determines its revelation:

25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,
26 But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:
27 To God only wise, be glory through Jesus Christ for ever.
Rom. 16:25–27.

There was a great deal in the Hebrew Scripture that the apostles and other Jewish Christians had to study from those Scriptures to come to the knowledge of the truth of the New Covenant era Israel found itself in.

It is all written in the Hebrew Scripture and if we study it under the anointing as they did we would come to the same conclusions they did concerning the Deity of Jesus being the Son of God and member of the Godhead.
 
Thomas' statement is not an address to anyone. It's a statement of praise for Jesus' resurrection. Words of praise often were not complete statements. Its probable meaning is "My Lord and my God be praised!"
this is the worst excuse 101G have ever hear. just ridiculous. this shows just how lost some people are. with Great GL.

101G.
 
Now that the OP has already been discussed, if there was anyone in doubt about the non-deity of Jesus still, then the Bible directly and explicitly rules Jesus out as being God. It's perfectly clear in no uncertain terms because it is with language that we are able to understand each other.

The Bible is a coherent literary work, consistent in its language. This means that if language is used to define God as a single person, it should be understood in that way, just as the language would be interpreted for any other individual. This is not to deny that anthropomorphic language may be used to describe God, but outside of this specific context, there is consistency. To suggest otherwise creates a "God language" where the meaning of words is altered, allowing for an arbitrary application that can make the text mean anything—even the opposite of what is stated. Instead of seeking a "God language," the better approach is to accept that the Bible authors used language in a way that allowed readers to understand the text clearly. Trinitarians often accuse others of assuming their doctrine, but the truth is, Trinitarians impose their theology onto the text, overriding a consistent reading of it. Barron 2009

John 17 (KJV)
3And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

Ephesians 4 (KJV)
6one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all.

1 Corinthians 8 (KJV)
6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we exist. And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.
 
To @Runningman & Co., - No, He did not!!

Question:-​
'And, behold, one came and said unto Him,
'Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?
Answer:-​
And He said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God:
but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
Question:-​
He saith unto Him, Which?
Answer:-​
Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
Question:-​
The young man saith unto him, All these things have I kept from my youth up: what lack I yet?
Answer:-​
Jesus said unto him, If thou wilt be perfect, go and sell that thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come and follow me.
* But when the young man heard that saying, he went away sorrowful: for he had great possessions.
Then said Jesus unto His disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven. And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
Question:-​
When his disciples heard it, they were exceedingly amazed, saying, Who then can be saved?
Answer:-​
But Jesus beheld them, and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible.
Question:-​
Then answered Peter and said unto him, Behold, we have forsaken all, and followed thee; what shall we have therefore?
Answer:-​
And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of His glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. And every one that hath forsaken houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my name's sake, shall receive an hundredfold, and shall inherit everlasting life. But many that are first shall be last; and the last shall be first.
(Mat 19:16-30) see also (Mark 10:17-28 & Luke 18:18-28)​

* These words were spoken during the period (Matt.6:21-20:34) when the Lord Jesus, Who had proclaimed the gospel of the Kingdom, and made known His person, was now suffering rejection. He Himself as their Messiah and King, and the gospel of the Kingdom which He had preached, was being rejected, and opportunity sought by the Scribes and Pharisees to have Him put to death. This must take place, but in God's time, in accord with the prophesies laid down in the Old Testament concerning Him, and not before. So the Lord's words and works were carefully orchestrated to not precipitate actions which needed to take place within God's timescale.

* I am reliably informed that the word, 'good' does not appear in the original text, yet it is repeated in both Mark and Luke's gospel. For the Lord to accept the word, 'good' in relation to Himself, in that potentially volatile situation would have been like lighting a tinder box, and accelerating His arrest and consequent death. That had to be avoided at all costs, that God's will be fully done. So, speaking as 'The Son of Man' (Matt.18:11), and not as 'The Son of God' he could say what He did without causing offence or precipitation of events.

* The Lord Jesus Christ came to confirm the promises made unto the Fathers, and to destroy the works of the devil. He only spoke the words and performed the works given to Him of His Father. So these words are as 'Divine' as any other revealed in this Divine record.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
How do you reckon that isn't a denial of being God?
 
I think that after 113 pages the answer, actually, the rebuttal to Runningman's post has already been answered and so now it comes down to one of two conclusions.

Either receive the rebuttal that Jesus is God or not.

But let me point out a couple of things with regard to this post. But first, here is the exchange in Matthew:

16 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?
17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
18 He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
19 Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
20 The young man saith unto him, All these things have I kept from my youth up: what lack I yet?
21 Jesus said unto him, If thou wilt be perfect, go and sell that thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come and follow me.
22 But when the young man heard that saying, he went away sorrowful: for he had great possessions.
23 Then said Jesus unto his disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven.
24 And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
25 When his disciples heard it, they were exceedingly amazed, saying, Who then can be saved?
26 But Jesus beheld them, and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible.
Mt 19:16–26.

In this exchange Jesus is not denying He is God, quite the opposite. He is either telling the truth in every word from His mouth or He is lying, and this post should be more about whether Jesus is speaking the truth or not. But let's have a more complete telling of this exchange since it is recorded in the synoptics.
So, take a closer look at what Jesus is saying and let's see if He is telling the truth or lying:

18 And a certain ruler asked him, saying, Good Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?
19 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.
20 Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Honour thy father and thy mother.
21 And he said, All these have I kept from my youth up.
22 Now when Jesus heard these things, he said unto him, Yet lackest thou one thing: sell all that thou hast, and distribute unto the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come, follow me.
23 And when he heard this, he was very sorrowful: for he was very rich.
24 And when Jesus saw that he was very sorrowful, he said, How hardly shall they that have riches enter into the kingdom of God!
25 For it is easier for a camel to go through a needle’s eye, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God. 26 And they that heard it said, Who then can be saved?
27 And he said, The things which are impossible with men are possible with God.
Lk 18:18–27.

17 And when he was gone forth into the way, there came one running, and kneeled to him, and asked him, Good Master, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life?
18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.
19 Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Defraud not, Honour thy father and mother.
20 And he answered and said unto him, Master, all these have I observed from my youth.
21 Then Jesus beholding him loved him, and said unto him, One thing thou lackest: go thy way, sell whatsoever thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come, take up the cross, and follow me.
22 And he was sad at that saying, and went away grieved: for he had great possessions.
23 And Jesus looked round about, and saith unto his disciples, How hardly shall they that have riches enter into the kingdom of God!
24 And the disciples were astonished at his words. But Jesus answereth again, and saith unto them, Children, how hard is it for them that trust in riches to enter into the kingdom of God!
25 It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God. 26 And they were astonished out of measure, saying among themselves, Who then can be saved?
27 And Jesus looking upon them saith, With men it is impossible, but not with God: for with God all things are possible.
Mk 10:17–27.

Luke identifies this man as a "ruler" and since Israel was occupied territory and Rome installed those that would "rule" the country this was a "ruler" who most likely was of the religious order (Sanhedrin.) He certainly wasn't a political "ruler." Some have posited this was Herod Antipas, but it doesn't say. But Jesus' anticipation that this "ruler" knew the Moral Law is clear in His response to his question (yes, everyone in Israel would have a should have known these things but the Greek word for "ruler" is "archōn" meaning "a first (in rank or power.)" And his question was sincere and not one who was trying to trap Jesus in His response. So, this religious "ruler" asked about "inheriting" eternal life.

As a descendant of Abraham through one of Jacob's twelve sons he asked about "inheriting" eternal life and this is exactly what eternal life was to the Jews. It was their inheritance of the Abraham and Mosaic Covenants and the eternal life that is promised to Israel.

In response Jesus does two things: First, He directs the man to the Law of Moses, and then He directs the man to obey the Law of Moses thus destroying the false belief by non-Hebrew Gentiles - maybe even YOU - who say the Law is "abolished" or "obsolete" and is not to be obeyed. Here, Jesus clearly directs the man to the Law of Moses and instructs him to obey the Law of Moses thus establishing by Jesus the Law is and was not abolished nor obsolete for it would be disingenuous for Jesus to instruct the man as a rabbi that He is and then mere weeks later abolish or make the eternal promises of God in the Law abolished or obsolete when He went to the cross. So, the Law still is in effect for the Jews who are under this covenant. Under BOTH covenants.

The next t5hing is Jesus instructs the man to follow Him [Jesus.]
Why didn't He tell the man to follow Jehovah? If the people didn't already accept Jesus' Divinity Jesus' words would have caused a riot and He would have been stoned for usurping God. But there is nothing in the text of a riot, so Jesus' words were correctly understood by the people. Except the people did not have a problem with following Jesus as God but at what Jesus says at the end. Jesus instructs the man to do three things but only one of those things will bring the man his inheritance and that is "follow me" (Jesus.)

The man went away 'sorrowful' for, the text says, he had great possessions (indicating he was probably of the Sanhedrin for these were of the upper class and were very rich or well off.) Jesus turns to the people who witnessed this exchange and asked, "who then can be saved"? On one hand we have one who had great possessions and told to sell it all and then give the proceeds to the poor, and on the other hand we have "following Jesus." Which one would have brought the man his inheritance of eternal life? Well, only God can give eternal lifer and here Jesus is in effect declaring Himself God - and directing the ruler and the people to follow Him and receive their inheritance. And only God can give anyone of the twelve tribes their inheritance of eternal life. So, how did it end? The man later did sell all he had and gave it all to the poor and did indeed come to follow Jesus thus establishing the people's acceptance and Jesus' declarations that He is God.

But the question, "who then can be saved" is answered by Jesus. He says:

With men this [being saved] is impossible; but with God all things are possible.

So, Jesus' response takes the inheritance of salvation which is of the Jews out of the hand of men and places it where it belongs: with God. Thus, the theology and false belief of "accept Jesus into your heart" in order to be saved/born-again is a lie and verses like Romans 10:9-10 is not a formula for salvation that men can accomplish by merely speaking it and it will take place for them. Jesus clearly says, "with men this - being saved, salvation - is impossible, but it is possible only with God and salvation is not of men but of God and only God.

Among other things Jesus declares He is God and directs the ruler to follow Him and he will receive his inheritance as a Jew to eternal life. So, even here Jesus declares He is God, should be followed, and the Jew that does this receives his or her inheritance. After all, eternal life was promised by God to the Jews in covenant with Him and it is clear that Jesus is the one to make it happen if only one would give Him all their coveting of riches and direct it towards Himself. If the people thought Jesus was merely a man and claiming to be followed is the same as following God and He was telling lies He would have been stoned. But the people didn't stone Him. Instead, they came to learn more of their Messiah and Lord. They came to understand that their inheritance went through Jesus.
Jesus as the God of Israel and Executor of the inheritance for Israel of twelve tribes.

Jesus is God.

Or He's telling lies.

So, is Jesus telling lies?

Well?

Receive or reject. There is no medium.
Jesus' teacher is the Father. By the fact that Jesus needed to be taught is indication that he needed to learn something. Those who need to learn something are by default not omniscient. God doesn't lack the divine quality of omniscience, but Jesus did.

John 8
28So Jesus said, “When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He, and that I do nothing on My own, but speak exactly what the Father has taught Me.

So when Jesus was called "Good teacher" of course he gave deference to God because only God alone is truly the good teacher. Make more sense now?

Receive or reject. There is no medium.
 
Last edited:
Jesus' teacher is the Father. By the fact that Jesus needed to be taught is indication that he needed to learn something. Those who need to learn something are by default not omniscient. God doesn't lack the divine quality of omniscience, but Jesus did.

John 8
28So Jesus said, “When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He, and that I do nothing on My own, but speak exactly what the Father has taught Me.

So when Jesus was called "Good teacher" of course he gave deference to God because only God alone is truly the good teacher. Make more sense now?

Receive or reject. There is no medium.

Jesus was effectively saying..don't call me good..you don't know what you are saying..I am good...more than good.

Its a challenge to them to address Him in better terms than 'good teacher'.

Not that He isn't God. That He is more than what they say.
 
Back
Top Bottom