jeremiah1five
Well-known member
Your teaching breaks Scripture.@jerimiah1five says: "IF non-Hebrew Gentiles were ever to have their sins paid for by the Lamb of God they would first have to be under the Law but they never were and so the only people Saul says is redeemed are the people under the Law - Israel."
CHRIST fulfills "being under the law" for EVERYONE
But FIRST He came to His own (Jewish nation), while under the law, and His own did not receive Him = John 1:10-13
Once Christ fulfill the Law, no one else was required to be under the law except uncircumcised/unbelieving Jews. = John 5:45
Jews who refuse to be circumcised in their heart end up with idolatrous unbelieving Gentiles in Judgment. = Romans 2:28-29
Now I say that the heir, as long as he is a child, does not differ at all from a slave, though he is master of all, but is under guardians and stewards until the time appointed by the father. Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world. But when the fullness of the time had come, God sent forth His Son, born[a] of a woman, born under the law, to redeem those who were under the law, that we might receive the adoption as sons. - Galatians 4:1-5
Never were Gentiles under the Law. Christ came to fulfill the Law and He did that and fulfilled perfectly the Law of Moses which Law commanded by God that animals be sacrificed to atone yearly for the sins of the children of Israel.
Then, at the appointed time God sent His Son, made under the Law, made of a woman, to redeem them who were under the Law and that people are the children of Israel.
Let the Word of God tell you what to believe, stop telling the Word of God what to say.