Council of Nicea and Constantinople

Jews would have understood the "Word becoming flesh" as personification. The word of God is always personified in Hebrew literature, not incarnated. They would have stoned John for trying to say God literally became a human, which is why he avoided such literal statements like the plague. It probably explains why he also wrote the Word is actually a thing in 1 John 1:1-3. It's just poetry.

Meyer's NT Commentary

"The Word as creative, and embodying generally the divine will, is personified in Hebrew poetry (Psalm 33:6; Psalm 107:20; Psalm 147:15; Isaiah 55:10-11); and consequent upon this concrete and independent representation, divine attributes are predicated of it (Psalm 34:4; Isaiah 40:8; Psalm 119:105), so far as it was at the same time the continuous revelation of God in law and prophecy."

 
Yeah, it does

John 1:1 (KJV 1900) — 1 IN the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

John 20:28–29 (KJV 1900) — 28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. 29 Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.

Titus 2:13 (NASB 2020) — 13 looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus,

2 Peter 1:1 (NASB 2020) — 1 Simon Peter, a bond-servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ:

John 1:18 (NASB 2020) — 18 No one has seen God at any time; God the only Son, who is in the arms of the Father, He has explained Him.
Your translations are erred. Not to mention altered by satans will by the removal of Gods name. To mislead as its doing to you.

The prime example is John 1:1--the word=god.

Another very big one = Joel 2:21-22--With Gods name in place it reads--Those who call on the name of YHVH(Jehovah) will be saved. -- Its quoted 2 spots in NT Acts 2:21 Romans 10:13--The name YHVH(Jehovah) belongs at all 3 spots.. But since LORD is at Joel by satans will in your altered translation, Lord is at both NT spots. And since all know Jesus is Lord, the mislead will call on his name in error and will not do Gods will on the matter. Thus does one think they will be saved when they are being mislead and cannot do this-John 4:22-24
 
Your translations are erred. Not to mention altered by satans will by the removal of Gods name. To mislead as its doing to you.

The prime example is John 1:1--the word=god.

Another very big one = Joel 2:21-22--With Gods name in place it reads--Those who call on the name of YHVH(Jehovah) will be saved. -- Its quoted 2 spots in NT Acts 2:21 Romans 10:13--The name YHVH(Jehovah) belongs at all 3 spots.. But since LORD is at Joel by satans will in your altered translation, Lord is at both NT spots. And since all know Jesus is Lord, the mislead will call on his name in error and will not do Gods will on the matter. Thus does one think they will be saved when they are being mislead and cannot do this-John 4:22-24
You have multiple problems

1 you provide no evidence the translations are in error

2 John 1:1 clearly teaches the Word is God (a class of deity)

3 you have no Greek texts with the name in Acts 2:21 and Rom 10:13

4 Christ is openly worshipped in the New testament
 
You have multiple problems

1 you provide no evidence the translations are in error

2 John 1:1 clearly teaches the Word is God (a class of deity)

3 you have no Greek texts with the name in Acts 2:21 and Rom 10:13

4 Christ is openly worshipped in the New testament
The Greek texts were translated from Jeromes latin Vulgate. The write ups say Jerome removed Gods name and replaced with titles. Thus the altered translations came about.
I explained John 1:1 to you already, The Word is NOT called capitol G God in the Greek Lexicons.
 
The Greek texts were translated from Jeromes latin Vulgate. The write ups say Jerome removed Gods name and replaced with titles. Thus the altered translations came about.
I explained John 1:1 to you already, The Word is NOT called capitol G God in the Greek Lexicons.
What are your sources? The JW Heretical Cult Society of Myths and Fairy Tales? :rolleyes:
 
The Greek texts were translated from Jeromes latin Vulgate. The write ups say Jerome removed Gods name and replaced with titles. Thus the altered translations came about.
I explained John 1:1 to you already, The Word is NOT called capitol G God in the Greek Lexicons.
As noted you do not know what the lexicons say. They do not call Christ small g

You simply do not know what you are talking about
 
As noted you do not know what the lexicons say. They do not call Christ small g

You simply do not know what you are talking about
You must be thick. The Word is called the same word that satan is called at 2 Cor 4:4=god, while the true God=God is called a totally different word. Its the only 2 places in the NT where 2 are being called God and gos. So in your vast knowledge of this fact explain to all of us the Greek to English rule that says the same word in those 2 instances translate different.
 
Again, you're too afraid to reveal your sources. Until then we will all take it that your source is the JW Heretical Cult Society of Myths and Fairy Tales. :ROFLMAO:
It takes one a whole 10 seconds to look it up for self. How much value does eternal life have in your book? Is it worth 10 seconds of your time? Then God would say-Look one who listens to me and is being like the Bereans and making sure of all things---only self can do that.
 
It takes one a whole 10 seconds to look it up for self. How much value does eternal life have in your book? Is it worth 10 seconds of your time? Then God would say-Look one who listens to me and is being like the Bereans and making sure of all things---only self can do that.
It's your assertion that needs sources. I'm not going to do your work. In the minute you wrote your reply you could have checked if your assertion was valid or not. Instead you flood the internet with myths from your JW Heretical Cult Society. This is typical of cultists.
 
You must be thick. The Word is called the same word that satan is called at 2 Cor 4:4=god, while the true God=God is called a totally different word. Its the only 2 places in the NT where 2 are being called God and gos. So in your vast knowledge of this fact explain to all of us the Greek to English rule that says the same word in those 2 instances translate different.
Um those are not lexicons

Hello

You made a statement about lexicons

And for your information Jehovah your preferred name is referred to with the same exact word

You want to call him small g God
 
The Greek texts were translated from Jeromes latin Vulgate. The write ups say Jerome removed Gods name and replaced with titles. Thus the altered translations came about.
I explained John 1:1 to you already, The Word is NOT called capitol G God in the Greek Lexicons.
Sorry the New Testament was originally written in Greek not Latin

and Theon the same word that appears in John 1:1 is used for Jehovah God

Further you have cited a single lexicon to support your view



θεός, οῦ, ὁ and ἡ (Hom.+; Herm. Wr.; inscr., pap., LXX, En., Ep. Arist., Philo, Joseph., Test. 12 Patr., Sib. Or.); voc. θεέ (Pisid. Inscr. [JHS 22, ’02, 355] θέ; PGM 4, 218 θεὲ θεῶν; 7, 529 κύριε θεὲ μέγιστε; 12, 120 κύριε θεέ; 13, 997; LXX [Thackeray 145; PKatz, Philo’s Bible ’50, 152f]; Jos., Ant. 14, 24ὦ θεὲ βασιλεῦ τ. ὅλων; Sib. Or. 13, 172 βασιλεῦ κόσμου θεέ) Mt 27:46, more frequently (s. 2 and 3c, h below) ὁ θεός (LXX; Bl-D. §147, 3 w. app.; JWackernagel, Über einige antike Anredeformen ’12; Mlt.-H. 120). On the inclusion or omission of the art. gener. s. W-S. §19, 13d; Bl-D. §254, 1; 268, 2; Rob. 758; 761; 780; 786; 795; Mlt.-Turner 174; BWeiss, D. Gebr. des Artikels bei den Gottesnamen, StKr 84, ’11, 319-92; 503-38 (also available separately). God, god.
1. of divine beings gener.: Ac 28:6; 2 Th 2:4 (cf. Sib. Or. 5, 34 ὒσάζων θεῷ αὐτόν). θεὸς Ῥομφά Ac 7:43 (Am 5:26). οὐδεὶς θεὸς εὒ μὴ εἷς there is no God but one 1 Cor 8:4. θεοῦ φωνὴ καὶ οὐκ ἀνθρώπου Ac 12:22.—ἡ θεός the goddess (Att., later more rarely; Peripl. Eryth. c. 58; Lucian, Dial. Deor. 17, 2; Dit., Syll.3 695, 28; inscr., one of which refers to Artemis, in Hauser p. 81f; Jos., Ant. 9, 19)Ac 19:37.—Pl. Ac 7:40 (Ex 32:1). Cf. 14:11; 19:26; PK 2 p. 14, 21. εἴπερ εὒσὶν λεγόμενοι θεοί even if there are so-called gods 1 Cor 8:5a; cf. b (on θεοὶ πολλοί cf. Jos., Ant. 4, 149.—Maximus Tyr. 11, 5a: θ. πολλοί w. εἷς θ. πατήρ). οἱ φύσει μὴ ὄντες θεοί those who by nature are not really gods Gal 4:8b.
2. Some writings in our lit. use the word θ. w. ref. to Christ (without necessarily equating Christ with the Father), though the interpretation of some of the pass. is in debate. In Ro 9:5 the interpr. depends on the punctuation. If a period is placed before ὁ ὢν κτλ., the doxology refers to God (so EAbbot, JBL 1, 1881, 81-154; 3, 1883, 90-112; RALipsius; HHoltzmann, Ntl. Theol.2 II ’11, 99f; EGünther, StKr 73, ’00, 636-44; FCBurkitt, JTS 5, ’04, 451-5; Jülicher; PFeine, Theol. d. NTs6 ’34, 176; OHoltzmann; Ltzm.; AMBrouwer; RSV text).—If a comma is used in the same place, the reference is to Christ (so BWeiss; EBröse, NKZ 10, 1899, 645-57; ASchlatter; ThZahn; EKühl; PAlthaus; M-JLagrange; JSickenberger; RSV mg. S. also εἰμί I1.—Undecided: ThHaering.—The conjecture of the Socinian scholar JSchlichting [died 1661] ὧν ὁ=‘to whom belongs’ is revived by JWeiss, most recently in D. Urchristentum ’17, 363; WWrede, Pls ’05, 82; CStrömman, ZNW 8, ’07, 319f). In 2 Pt 1:1; 1J 5:20 the interpretation is open to question. On the other hand, θ. certainly refers to Christ in the foll. NT pass.: J 1:1b (w. ὁ θεός 1:1a, which refers to God the Father; on θεός w. and without the article, acc. to whether it means God or the Logos, s. Philo, Somn. 1, 229f; JGGriffiths, ET 62, ’50f, 314-16; BMMetzger, ET 63, ’51f, 125f), 18b. ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου my Lord and my God! (nom. w. art.=voc.; s. beg. of this entry.—On the resurrection as proof of divinity cf. Diog. L. 8, 41, who quotes Hermippus: Pythagoras returns from a journey to Hades and appears among his followers [εἰσέρχεσθαι εἰς τὴν ἐκκλησίαν], and they consider him θεῖόν τινα) 20:28 (on the combination of κύριος and θεός s. 3c below). Tit 2:13 (μέγας θ.). Hb 1:8, 9 (in a quot. fr. Ps 44:7, 8). S. TFGlasson, NTS 12, ’66, 270-72. Jd 5 P72. But above all Ignatius calls Christ θεός in many pass.: θεὸς Ἰησοῦς Χριστός ITr 7:1; Χριστὸς θεός ISm 10:1. ὁ θεὸς ἡμῶν IEph inscr.; 15:3; 18:2; IRo inscr. (twice); 3:3; IPol 8:3; τὸ πάθος τοῦ θεοῦ μου IRo 6:3. ἐν αἵματι θεοῦ IEph 1:1. ἐν σαρκὶ γενόμενος θεός 7:2. θεὸς ἀνθρωπίνως φανερούμενος 19:3. θεὸς ὁ οὕτως ὑμᾶς σοφίσας ISm 1:1.—Hdb. exc. 193f; MRackl, Die Christologie d. hl. Ign. v. Ant. ’14.—StLösch, Deitas Jesu u. antike Apotheose ’33.
3. quite predom. of the true God, somet. with, somet. without the art.
α. ὁ θεός Mt 1:23; 3:9; 5:8, 34; Mk 2:12; 13:19; Lk 2:13; J 3:2b; Ac 2:22b; Gal 2:6 al. With prep. εἰς τὸν θ. Ac 24:15. ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ J 8:42b, 47; 1J 3:9f; 4:1ff, 6f; 5:1, 4; 2 Cor 3:5; 5:18 al.; ἐν τῷ θ. Ro 5:11; Col 3:3. ἔναντι τοῦ θεοῦ Lk 1:8; ἐπὶ τὸν θ. Ac 15:19; 26:18, 20; ἐπὶ τῷ θ. Lk 1:47; παρὰ τοῦ θ. J 8:40; παρὰ τῷ θ. Ro 2:13; 9:14; πρὸς τὸν θ. J 1:2; Ac 24:16. τὰ πρὸς τὸν θεόν Hb 2:17; 5:1; Ro 15:17 is acc. of respect: with respect to one’s relation to God or the things pertaining to God, in God’s cause (cf. Bl-D. §160; Rob. 486. For τὰ πρὸς τ. θ. s. Soph., Phil. 1441; X., De Rep. Lac. 13, 11; Aristot., De Rep. 5, 11; Lucian, Pro Imag. 8; Wilcken, Chrest. 109, 3 [III BC] εὐσεβὴς τὰ πρὸς θεούς; Ex 4:16; 18:19; Jos., Ant. 9, 236εὐσεβὴς τὰ πρὸς τ. θεόν)
b.without the art. Mt 6:24; Lk 2:14; 20:38; J 1:18a; Ro 8:8, 33b; 2 Cor 1:21; 5:19; Gal 2:19; 4:8f; 2 Th 1:8; Tit 1:16; 3:8; Hb 3:4. W. prep. ἀπὸ θεοῦ J 3:2a; 16:30. εἰς θεόν IPhld 1:2. ἐκ θεοῦ (Pind., Ol. 11, 10, Pyth. 1, 41; Jos., Ant. 2, 164)Ac 5:39; 2 Cor 5:1; Phil 3:9. κατὰ θεόν acc. to God’s will (Appian, Iber. 19 §73; 23 §88; 26 §101, Liby. 6 §25, Bell. Civ. 4, 86 §364) Ro 8:27; 2 Cor 7:9ff; IEph 2:1. ἡ κατὰ θ. ἀγάπη godly love IMg 1:1; cf. 13:1; ITr 1:2. παρὰ θεῷ (Jos., Bell. 1, 635)Mt 19:26; Lk 2:52.


William Arndt et al., A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature : A Translation and Adaption of the Fourth Revised and Augmented Edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-Deutsches Worterbuch Zu Den Schrift En Des Neuen Testaments Und Der Ubrigen Urchristlichen Literatur (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1979), 356–357.
 
It's your assertion that needs sources. I'm not going to do your work. In the minute you wrote your reply you could have checked if your assertion was valid or not. Instead you flood the internet with myths from your JW Heretical Cult Society. This is typical of cultists.
Its not my work, i already know its fact. Its the ones in darkness that do not know it and need to look for self. I showed Gods view of a cult. Its sad that 99% are thick in their reasonings. Because they do not know God.
 
Um those are not lexicons

Hello

You made a statement about lexicons

And for your information Jehovah your preferred name is referred to with the same exact word

You want to call him small g God
God is only called that word when spoken of alone in a paragraph=reality, because all know its speaking of the true God. But at John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4 2 are being called God or god in the same paragraph. So instead of beating around the bush because you have no answer. Explain to all of us why the same word is given to the Word and satan yet translated different at John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--explain the Greek to English rule that would cause that. If there is no rule then your translations are erred.
 
Sorry the New Testament was originally written in Greek not Latin

and Theon the same word that appears in John 1:1 is used for Jehovah God

Further you have cited a single lexicon to support your view



θεός, οῦ, ὁ and ἡ (Hom.+; Herm. Wr.; inscr., pap., LXX, En., Ep. Arist., Philo, Joseph., Test. 12 Patr., Sib. Or.); voc. θεέ (Pisid. Inscr. [JHS 22, ’02, 355] θέ; PGM 4, 218 θεὲ θεῶν; 7, 529 κύριε θεὲ μέγιστε; 12, 120 κύριε θεέ; 13, 997; LXX [Thackeray 145; PKatz, Philo’s Bible ’50, 152f]; Jos., Ant. 14, 24ὦ θεὲ βασιλεῦ τ. ὅλων; Sib. Or. 13, 172 βασιλεῦ κόσμου θεέ) Mt 27:46, more frequently (s. 2 and 3c, h below) ὁ θεός (LXX; Bl-D. §147, 3 w. app.; JWackernagel, Über einige antike Anredeformen ’12; Mlt.-H. 120). On the inclusion or omission of the art. gener. s. W-S. §19, 13d; Bl-D. §254, 1; 268, 2; Rob. 758; 761; 780; 786; 795; Mlt.-Turner 174; BWeiss, D. Gebr. des Artikels bei den Gottesnamen, StKr 84, ’11, 319-92; 503-38 (also available separately). God, god.
1. of divine beings gener.: Ac 28:6; 2 Th 2:4 (cf. Sib. Or. 5, 34 ὒσάζων θεῷ αὐτόν). θεὸς Ῥομφά Ac 7:43 (Am 5:26). οὐδεὶς θεὸς εὒ μὴ εἷς there is no God but one 1 Cor 8:4. θεοῦ φωνὴ καὶ οὐκ ἀνθρώπου Ac 12:22.—ἡ θεός the goddess (Att., later more rarely; Peripl. Eryth. c. 58; Lucian, Dial. Deor. 17, 2; Dit., Syll.3 695, 28; inscr., one of which refers to Artemis, in Hauser p. 81f; Jos., Ant. 9, 19)Ac 19:37.—Pl. Ac 7:40 (Ex 32:1). Cf. 14:11; 19:26; PK 2 p. 14, 21. εἴπερ εὒσὶν λεγόμενοι θεοί even if there are so-called gods 1 Cor 8:5a; cf. b (on θεοὶ πολλοί cf. Jos., Ant. 4, 149.—Maximus Tyr. 11, 5a: θ. πολλοί w. εἷς θ. πατήρ). οἱ φύσει μὴ ὄντες θεοί those who by nature are not really gods Gal 4:8b.
2. Some writings in our lit. use the word θ. w. ref. to Christ (without necessarily equating Christ with the Father), though the interpretation of some of the pass. is in debate. In Ro 9:5 the interpr. depends on the punctuation. If a period is placed before ὁ ὢν κτλ., the doxology refers to God (so EAbbot, JBL 1, 1881, 81-154; 3, 1883, 90-112; RALipsius; HHoltzmann, Ntl. Theol.2 II ’11, 99f; EGünther, StKr 73, ’00, 636-44; FCBurkitt, JTS 5, ’04, 451-5; Jülicher; PFeine, Theol. d. NTs6 ’34, 176; OHoltzmann; Ltzm.; AMBrouwer; RSV text).—If a comma is used in the same place, the reference is to Christ (so BWeiss; EBröse, NKZ 10, 1899, 645-57; ASchlatter; ThZahn; EKühl; PAlthaus; M-JLagrange; JSickenberger; RSV mg. S. also εἰμί I1.—Undecided: ThHaering.—The conjecture of the Socinian scholar JSchlichting [died 1661] ὧν ὁ=‘to whom belongs’ is revived by JWeiss, most recently in D. Urchristentum ’17, 363; WWrede, Pls ’05, 82; CStrömman, ZNW 8, ’07, 319f). In 2 Pt 1:1; 1J 5:20 the interpretation is open to question. On the other hand, θ. certainly refers to Christ in the foll. NT pass.: J 1:1b (w. ὁ θεός 1:1a, which refers to God the Father; on θεός w. and without the article, acc. to whether it means God or the Logos, s. Philo, Somn. 1, 229f; JGGriffiths, ET 62, ’50f, 314-16; BMMetzger, ET 63, ’51f, 125f), 18b. ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου my Lord and my God! (nom. w. art.=voc.; s. beg. of this entry.—On the resurrection as proof of divinity cf. Diog. L. 8, 41, who quotes Hermippus: Pythagoras returns from a journey to Hades and appears among his followers [εἰσέρχεσθαι εἰς τὴν ἐκκλησίαν], and they consider him θεῖόν τινα) 20:28 (on the combination of κύριος and θεός s. 3c below). Tit 2:13 (μέγας θ.). Hb 1:8, 9 (in a quot. fr. Ps 44:7, 8). S. TFGlasson, NTS 12, ’66, 270-72. Jd 5 P72. But above all Ignatius calls Christ θεός in many pass.: θεὸς Ἰησοῦς Χριστός ITr 7:1; Χριστὸς θεός ISm 10:1. ὁ θεὸς ἡμῶν IEph inscr.; 15:3; 18:2; IRo inscr. (twice); 3:3; IPol 8:3; τὸ πάθος τοῦ θεοῦ μου IRo 6:3. ἐν αἵματι θεοῦ IEph 1:1. ἐν σαρκὶ γενόμενος θεός 7:2. θεὸς ἀνθρωπίνως φανερούμενος 19:3. θεὸς ὁ οὕτως ὑμᾶς σοφίσας ISm 1:1.—Hdb. exc. 193f; MRackl, Die Christologie d. hl. Ign. v. Ant. ’14.—StLösch, Deitas Jesu u. antike Apotheose ’33.
3. quite predom. of the true God, somet. with, somet. without the art.
α. ὁ θεός Mt 1:23; 3:9; 5:8, 34; Mk 2:12; 13:19; Lk 2:13; J 3:2b; Ac 2:22b; Gal 2:6 al. With prep. εἰς τὸν θ. Ac 24:15. ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ J 8:42b, 47; 1J 3:9f; 4:1ff, 6f; 5:1, 4; 2 Cor 3:5; 5:18 al.; ἐν τῷ θ. Ro 5:11; Col 3:3. ἔναντι τοῦ θεοῦ Lk 1:8; ἐπὶ τὸν θ. Ac 15:19; 26:18, 20; ἐπὶ τῷ θ. Lk 1:47; παρὰ τοῦ θ. J 8:40; παρὰ τῷ θ. Ro 2:13; 9:14; πρὸς τὸν θ. J 1:2; Ac 24:16. τὰ πρὸς τὸν θεόν Hb 2:17; 5:1; Ro 15:17 is acc. of respect: with respect to one’s relation to God or the things pertaining to God, in God’s cause (cf. Bl-D. §160; Rob. 486. For τὰ πρὸς τ. θ. s. Soph., Phil. 1441; X., De Rep. Lac. 13, 11; Aristot., De Rep. 5, 11; Lucian, Pro Imag. 8; Wilcken, Chrest. 109, 3 [III BC] εὐσεβὴς τὰ πρὸς θεούς; Ex 4:16; 18:19; Jos., Ant. 9, 236εὐσεβὴς τὰ πρὸς τ. θεόν)
b.without the art. Mt 6:24; Lk 2:14; 20:38; J 1:18a; Ro 8:8, 33b; 2 Cor 1:21; 5:19; Gal 2:19; 4:8f; 2 Th 1:8; Tit 1:16; 3:8; Hb 3:4. W. prep. ἀπὸ θεοῦ J 3:2a; 16:30. εἰς θεόν IPhld 1:2. ἐκ θεοῦ (Pind., Ol. 11, 10, Pyth. 1, 41; Jos., Ant. 2, 164)Ac 5:39; 2 Cor 5:1; Phil 3:9. κατὰ θεόν acc. to God’s will (Appian, Iber. 19 §73; 23 §88; 26 §101, Liby. 6 §25, Bell. Civ. 4, 86 §364) Ro 8:27; 2 Cor 7:9ff; IEph 2:1. ἡ κατὰ θ. ἀγάπη godly love IMg 1:1; cf. 13:1; ITr 1:2. παρὰ θεῷ (Jos., Bell. 1, 635)Mt 19:26; Lk 2:52.


William Arndt et al., A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature : A Translation and Adaption of the Fourth Revised and Augmented Edition of Walter Bauer’s Griechisch-Deutsches Worterbuch Zu Den Schrift En Des Neuen Testaments Und Der Ubrigen Urchristlichen Literatur (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1979), 356–357.
Catholicism kept Gods word in latin until the 1300,s. There were no Greek text originals left in existence by then. The Greek lexicons were translated from Jeromes latin Vulgate.
Why does one speak on matters when they have no clue as to the facts?
 
God is only called that word when spoken of alone in a paragraph=reality, because all know its speaking of the true God. But at John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4 2 are being called God or god in the same paragraph. So instead of beating around the bush because you have no answer. Explain to all of us why the same word is given to the Word and satan yet translated different at John 1:1 and 2 Cor 4:4--explain the Greek to English rule that would cause that. If there is no rule then your translations are erred.
You were already informed Theon by itself (without the article) is used to refer to Jehovah

and that same word Theon with the article is used to refer to Jehovah

and that same word Theon is used to refer to Jesus

and that same word Theon is used to refer to Satan

Got it? it is the same word Theon used in all cases
 
Catholicism kept Gods word in latin until the 1300,s. There were no Greek text originals left in existence by then. The Greek lexicons were translated from Jeromes latin Vulgate.
Why does one speak on matters when they have no clue as to the facts?
Your comment is convoluted lexicons are word dictionaries not translations

You apparently have no knowledge of facts so why do you speak?
 
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Its not my work, i already know its fact. Its the ones in darkness that do not know it and need to look for self. I showed Gods view of a cult. Its sad that 99% are thick in their reasonings. Because they do not know God.
So you refuse to verify your claims or to reveal your sources. Fine. Stay in your world of myths and fairy tales as fabricated by the JW Heretical Cult Society of America.
 
What are your sources? The JW Heretical Cult Society of Myths and Fairy Tales? :rolleyes:
Catholicism kept Gods word in latin until the 1300,s. There were no Greek text originals left in existence by then. The Greek lexicons were translated from Jeromes latin Vulgate.
Why does one speak on matters when they have no clue as to the facts?
Newsflash the word Jehovah never appeared anywhere until Tyndale in the 16 century and he added vowels of his choice to make up the name
 
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