Its no interpretation its fact--YHVH(Jehovah) said to my Lord( Jesus)
Council of Nicea and Constantinople
- Thread starter Keiw1
- Start date
Yes it was translated from Jeromes translating. The Latin Vulgate and NT was translated into latin as well in the 300,s ce. No originals remained when the protestants translated into the Greek lexicons. They had Jeromes translating= Catholicism translating.
wrong--Gods name is at Gen 18:27=YHVH(Jehovah)-- Jerome put Lord at Gen 18:27 in his Latin Vulgate, and removed Gods name along with over 7000 other spots like Psalm 110:1--LORD does not belong there. Satans will had it done( removal of Gods name to mislead)
So which Bible version do you read? The JW Heretic Standard Version?
you must have weird sources. Roman Catholicism is recognized as starting about AD600 -- so about 250years after Jerome. Are you saying that we cannot recognize where YHWH appears in the NASB or ESV?
I forget where you said the Christians stopped worshiping Christ and why would they stop worshiping him?
I read that Jerome decided to use the Hebrew text for the most part to obtain the Latin Vulgate. In the Septuagint, it is kyrios in both positions -- the kyrios. so it is possible that he got a copy of the Hebrew already manipulated by the Jews -- just a theory or guess.
Another question is why unitarians refer to Jerome as a (Roman) Catholic? It seems that unitarianism is simply a rejection of the full orthodox Christianity if people were being honest in this debate. And in this constant mention of Catholicism, it seems those who follow the bad teachings of unitarianism have the same source of distortion in their "research"
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God fixed his written word=The New world translation.
How is that possible when they held councils in the 300,s? over 7000 places Gods name belongs-removed to mislead.
Psalm 45:7, John 20:17, Rev 3:12 is why--None that have a God gets worship.
The Greek word=Proskenaue( misspelled)--it has 5 different meanings from Greek to English-1) worship to God-2) obeisance to a king-3) honor to a judge, plus 2 more--Obeisance is correct to Gods appointed king.
The write ups say Jerome removed Gods name.
No protestant religion fixed the errors brought in by Catholicism, just a very little bit. They only had Catholicism translating to use.
Let's put the New World Translation to the test with John 1:1.
Here is John 1:1 in Koine Greek:
1 εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και θεος ην ο λογος
Here is a transliteration of it:
In beginning is the Word and the Word is facing God and God is the Word.
Here is the NWT version of John 1:1:
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.”
Do tell us how in the world do you go from θεος ην ο λογος (God is the Word) to "the Word was a god"???
Did the JW God suddenly forget how to read Greek?Also, what does the NWT mean by "a god"? Goblins and Elf spirits?
civic
Well-known member
Yes I noticed many peoples church history is slanted lol
Yes, The true God called a totally different word than the Word is called= God and god, the same exact wording is at 2 Cor 4:4 but every translation on earth has god and God there. Translating is the same at both spots. Or show us all the Greek to English rule that makes the same word different at both spots.Let's put the New World Translation to the test with John 1:1.
Here is John 1:1 in Koine Greek:
1 εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και θεος ην ο λογος
Here is a transliteration of it:
In beginning is the Word and the Word is facing God and God is the Word.
Here is the NWT version of John 1:1:
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.”
Do tell us how in the world do you go from θεος ην ο λογος (God is the Word) to "the Word was a god"???
Also, what does the NWT mean by "a god"? Goblins and Elf spirits?
(2Co 4:4) ἐν οἷς ὁ θεὸς τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτου ἐτύφλωσε τὰ νοήματα τῶν ἀπίστων εἰς τὸ μὴ αὐγάσαι αὐτοῖς τὸν φωτισμὸν τοῦ εὐαγγελίου τῆς δόξης τοῦ Χριστοῦ, ὅς ἐστι εἰκὼν τοῦ Θεοῦ.
"ὁ θεὸς τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτου" is the god of this world, satan in other words.
"Θεοῦ" is God's (possessive).
So what exactly are you saying concerning John 1:1?
civic
Well-known member
A strawman
thus the Word got the word ending in a g like character the same as satan got= god( carrying the bible meaning-has godlike qualities), the true God got the word ending in a v like Character=God, If the Word were-God-he would have been called the word ending in the v like character.
And if the Word were God, your second line at John 1:1 in simple English reads--And God(Word) was with God--how many Gods is that?
Huh? 2Cor 4:4 mentions θεὸς and Θεοῦ. Where do you see a word ending in g or v? Are you talking about ς and ῦ ?
I said g and v like characters.
I believe in one God,
the Father almighty,
maker of heaven and earth,
of all things visible and invisible.
I believe in one Lord Jesus Christ,
the Only Begotten Son of God,
born of the Father before all ages.
God from God, Light from Light,
true God from true God,
begotten, not made, consubstantial with the Father;
through him all things were made.
For us men and for our salvation
he came down from heaven,
and by the Holy Spirit was incarnate of the Virgin Mary,
and became man.
For our sake he was crucified under Pontius Pilate,
he suffered death and was buried,
and rose again on the third day
in accordance with the Scriptures.
He ascended into heaven
and is seated at the right hand of the Father.
He will come again in glory
to judge the living and the dead
and his kingdom will have no end.
I believe in the Holy Spirit, the Lord, the giver of life,
who proceeds from the Father [and the Son],
who with the Father and the Son is adored and glorified,
who has spoken through the prophets........................
