Are we under any covenants?

Did God write the Law on the hearts of the Gentiles here Rom 2 14-15

14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:

15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;)
The "work" of the Law and the Law itself are two different things.
Thats silly, of course the law existed at creation, or else how could there be the transgression ? Did not Adam transgress ? Rom 5
Then you would have to believe that the Law shows us we are sinners and if the Law (Thou shalt not) was at creation then it shows the man and woman were sinful by virtue of their creation which is true.
And let's not forget that adding to God's Word is the sin of lying ("Neither shall ye touch it" - Prov. 30:6) and that they were sinners before they ate of the tree thus destroying the teaching of a "Fall" when they ate from the tree. They were already fallen before the tree.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

Thats what sin is duh 1 Jn 3 4
That "had not" sinned after the same sin of Adam. It doesn't mention any sin that was committed only that death reigned from Adam to Moses.
Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.

If there was no law in the beginning, it could not have been a transgression Rom 5
The commands of God and the Law of God are the same thing. The commands of God are Law, and the Law(s) of God are His commands. The command "thou shalt not" shows these two sinners before they ate of the tree.
12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:

13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

Rom 4 15

Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

Now was Adam a Jew ? NO. Did he and his posterity in him transgress the Law ? Yes
Again, the command "thou shalt not" proves they were sinners before they ate for such commands or written commands/Law are the same and the command/Law in the Garden showed them sinners before their act of sin.
Sin comes from sinners.
 
In Genesis, Exodus, and Jeremiah God made covenant with Abraham (Abrahamic Covenant), then with the children of Israel (Mosaic), and later through Jesus Christ (New Covenant) which is with the House of Israel and the House of Judah, and the biblical fact that God never made any covenant with Gentiles and that Gentiles are not named nor mentioned in any of the three Hebrew covenants, the interchange between Jesus and the Samaritan woman at the well teaches us that although half-Jew/half-Gentile, the woman is still the seed of Abraham and thus is still in covenant with God,
I lean towards the belief that since Israel had been scattered throughout the world several times (Assyrian, Babylonian, Roman, Nazi Germany) that there is a reasonable possibility that so-called and presumed Gentiles who are born again and received the Holy Spirit of Promise given to Israel that there is Hebrew blood in their family ancestry. Although this cannot be proven neither can it be disproven and relies only on Scripture, history, and reason. And I think I also have the Spirit of God (1 Cor. 7:40.)
Personally, as with Jeremiah and Saul, I believe I may be of the tribe of Benjamin.
Again, God made no covenant with Gentiles and yet it is known that Gentiles have been born-again and given the Holy Spirit of Promise that was promised TO ISRAEL. Non-Hebrew Gentiles have no business with the Holy Spirit of Promise since He was not promised to Gentiles. But IF they have Hebrew blood in their veins no matter the dilution, God is a God of Covenant and will and has kept all His promises to date given to Israel. I am still developing this position.


Jesus Christ fulfilled the Mosaic Covenant. Israel practiced animal sacrifices and God sent His own sacrifice to die for and redeem those under the Law. This is Scripture. Nowhere does it say as clearly as that that Jesus died for Gentiles. The New Covenant IS the Mosaic Covenant fulfilled.

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
6 And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.
Gal. 4:4–6.

There it is right there. Jesus came to redeem those under the Law and Gentiles were NEVER under the Law. That covenant was made between God and the children of Israel.
Do you accept truth, truther, or do you reject truth, truther?
Jesus did not fulfill the mosaic covenant for sinners. Only for Acts 2:38 Saints. Adolf Hitler died under the law. So did Stalin etc. You’re either under law or grace.
All gentiles are born under the law and are condemned by the law per Romans, chapter 2 in chapter 3. If you need to passages, I will post them.
In chapter 2, it says the gentiles which have not the law do things that are written in the law… Which means they have not the written law. But they have the unwritten law written in their hearts. Do you understand that?
 
Jer 31 the New Covenant is the Church as the House of Israel, thats the Mystery friend
Really? So we are the house of Israel and house of Judah? Did we cease witnessing to know the Lord? Are we all saved from the least to the greatest and all witnessing shall stop among us?
When did this happen?
 
The "work" of the Law and the Law itself are two different things.

Then you would have to believe that the Law shows us we are sinners and if the Law (Thou shalt not) was at creation then it shows the man and woman were sinful by virtue of their creation which is true.
And let's not forget that adding to God's Word is the sin of lying ("Neither shall ye touch it" - Prov. 30:6) and that they were sinners before they ate of the tree thus destroying the teaching of a "Fall" when they ate from the tree. They were already fallen before the tree.

That "had not" sinned after the same sin of Adam. It doesn't mention any sin that was committed only that death reigned from Adam to Moses.

The commands of God and the Law of God are the same thing. The commands of God are Law, and the Law(s) of God are His commands. The command "thou shalt not" shows these two sinners before they ate of the tree.

Again, the command "thou shalt not" proves they were sinners before they ate for such commands or written commands/Law are the same and the command/Law in the Garden showed them sinners before their act of sin.
Sin comes from sinners.
To say there was no law transgressed at creation is the most unlearned thing a person can say who suppose to know the scriptures. Its when man sinned in Adam and transgressed the Law, the Redeemer was revealed to come and be made under the Law Gen 3:14-15

14 And the Lord God said unto the serpent, Because thou hast done this, thou art cursed above all cattle, and above every beast of the field; upon thy belly shalt thou go, and dust shalt thou eat all the days of thy life:

15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.
 
Jesus did not fulfill the mosaic covenant for sinners. Only for Acts 2:38 Saints. Adolf Hitler died under the law. So did Stalin etc. You’re either under law or grace.
All gentiles are born under the law and are condemned by the law per Romans, chapter 2 in chapter 3. If you need to passages, I will post them.
In chapter 2, it says the gentiles which have not the law do things that are written in the law… Which means they have not the written law. But they have the unwritten law written in their hearts. Do you understand that?
Then what Law was there in existence except for the Torah Law of Moses He came to fulfill. The animal sacrifices were connected to the Jesus sacrifice on the cross. Jesus said, I came to fulfill the Law. The Law of Moses, the one that without the Holy Spirit accused Israel of sin. That was the purpose of the Law, right. To declare God's Holy standard and to have His own Son fulfill it perfectly.

Yes, yes, they do what is in the Law not being under the Law in covenant which is what the non-Hebrew nations/Gentiles do. Men's laws have prohibitions against murder, lying, perjury, adultery, etc., all copies of God's Law. But it is NOT God's Law but their own laws because they don't want God in their lives.
 
To say there was no law transgressed at creation is the most unlearned thing a person can say who suppose to know the scriptures. Its when man sinned in Adam and transgressed the Law, the Redeemer was revealed to come and be made under the Law Gen 3:14-15

14 And the Lord God said unto the serpent, Because thou hast done this, thou art cursed above all cattle, and above every beast of the field; upon thy belly shalt thou go, and dust shalt thou eat all the days of thy life:

15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.
Oh, no, there was a Law that was transgressed: "Thou shalt not eat of it" which you know the Law, whether spoken, or written shows us we are sinners even before our first sin in the garden or as babies.
Her seed is directly related to Sarah whose miraculous birth of Isaac (son) prefigured Jesus' miraculous birth through Mary - who was Jewish.
Since Abraham there was a legal division between peoples: Abraham's seed and the seed of non-covenant, non-Hebrews.
 
Then what Law was there in existence except for the Torah Law of Moses He came to fulfill. The animal sacrifices were connected to the Jesus sacrifice on the cross. Jesus said, I came to fulfill the Law. The Law of Moses, the one that without the Holy Spirit accused Israel of sin. That was the purpose of the Law, right. To declare God's Holy standard and to have His own Son fulfill it perfectly.

Yes, yes, they do what is in the Law not being under the Law in covenant which is what the non-Hebrew nations/Gentiles do. Men's laws have prohibitions against murder, lying, perjury, adultery, etc., all copies of God's Law. But it is NOT God's Law but their own laws because they don't want God in their lives.
The Law is only fulfilled to those that have remission of sins....


38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, ...


Those without remission of sins are being actively condemned by it as we speak.
 
Behold, the Law for all sinful mankind of all persuasions...


19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.

20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
 
Oh, no, there was a Law that was transgressed: "Thou shalt not eat of it" which you know the Law, whether spoken, or written shows us we are sinners even before our first sin in the garden or as babies.
Her seed is directly related to Sarah whose miraculous birth of Isaac (son) prefigured Jesus' miraculous birth through Mary - who was Jewish.
Since Abraham there was a legal division between peoples: Abraham's seed and the seed of non-covenant, non-Hebrews.
To say there was no law transgressed at creation is the most unlearned thing a person can say who suppose to know the scriptures. Its when man sinned in Adam and transgressed the Law, the Redeemer was revealed to come and be made under the Law Gen 3:14-15

14 And the Lord God said unto the serpent, Because thou hast done this, thou art cursed above all cattle, and above every beast of the field; upon thy belly shalt thou go, and dust shalt thou eat all the days of thy life:

15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.
 
You replaced national Israel? Does this mean that Jeremiah 31 and Romans 11 is about us? Are we the beloved enemies to ourselves?
The beloved enemies are both jew and gentile elect. Did you know Gentiles also were beloved for the Fathers sake. Abraham is the Father of Many Nations, so they are beloved for his sake Gen 17:5

5 Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham; for a father of many nations have I made thee.

Gal 3:8-9


8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

9 So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham.
 
The beloved enemies are both jew and gentile elect. Did you know Gentiles also were beloved for the Fathers sake. Abraham is the Father of Many Nations, so they are beloved for his sake Gen 17:5

5 Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham; for a father of many nations have I made thee.

Gal 3:8-9


8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

9 So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham.
The beloved enemies are the Jews that Jesus is going to save when he returns to earth at his second coming. They are beloved of God and promised a covenant from the fathers, but they are the enemies of the church. Thus, they are the beloved enemies.
 
The beloved enemies are the Jews that Jesus is going to save when he returns to earth at his second coming. They are beloved of God and promised a covenant from the fathers, but they are the enemies of the church. Thus, they are the beloved enemies.
the beloved are both jews and gentiles of the election of grace, the Church
 
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