An Article on free will

[Kermos]

Have you ever read Ephesians 2:8-10?
Good.
So have the rest of us.

The Holy Spirit reveals that the gift of God is when a person believes in Jesus, and the Holy Spirit reveals that when a person believes in Jesus, that person's belief in Jesus is not of that person's self:

“by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, [it is] the gift of God"
(Ephesians 2:8).
​

Paul is in accord with Jesus the Lord who says “This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent” (John 6:29).

You are out of accord from Jesus the Lord because you believe "I free-will choose to believe in God all by myself".

Self-will or image of Christ will​

These 16 parts integrally contribute to one full composition. A response to post #6,699.
Part 1 of 16: Illegitimate Isolation
Part 2 of 16: Self-exaltation
Part 3 of 16: Unity Prayer (Acts 4:24)
Part 4 of 16: CHOOSE, ABLE, list
Part 5 of 16: God creates all
Part 6 of 16: Matthew 11 examined
Part 7 of 16: Free-willian NT Conflict
Part 8 of 16: John 3 16/Matthew 11:25
Part 9 of 16: Free-willian Self-savior
Part 10 of 16: Faith, the gift of God
Part 11 of 16: Free-willian are self-willed
Part 12 of 16: The Potter and the clay
Part 13 of 16: the problem here
Part 14 of 16: you confuse Calvin for Christ
Part 15 of 16: Christ controls Christians
Part 16 of 16: Christians hear Christ

 

[MTMattie]

The scriptures are only for the elect.

Where is that written?

 

[Red Baker]

???

My question was - Do you believe Jesus only died for the elect ?

You answered - It is very clear that he died for his sheep, aka, the elect of God.

I replied with 2 Scripture passages that Christ died for the sins of the whole world for believers and unbelievers, for believers to salvation, for unbelievers to punishment.

Why do you change the subject?

@ProDeo

I did not change the subject, I gave you the sense of how we are to understand the world as used both by John the Baptist, and John the apostle and Jesus in John 3:16 and explained by Paul in such scriptures as :

Romans 3:29​

“Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:”

 

[Jim]

Rom 8:29 For whom He did foreknow (have knowledge of beforehand), he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of His Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. (Those whom God foreknows will identify with His Son, He also predestinates to be like His Son, and to be adopted into His family.)

I would argue that verse 29 is actually referring to "those who love God" in verse 28. Verse 29 begins with " ὅτι οὓς προέγνω", For (because) those he foreknew. Here the hoti is a conjunction meaning causatively because. Thus verses 28 and 29 are saying, "all things work together for those who love God because those He foreknew He....."

Therefore it is those whom He foreknew would love Him that God predestined, called, justified and glorified.

 

[MTMattie]

okay and ? In case you weren't aware, the elect are scattered around the world. Duh

As @TomL said:
Mark 16:15 (LEB) — 15 And he said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation.

We all know that the chosen are scattered around the world.

Why can you not understand what ALL means?????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????

You keep harping on my inability to understand scripture...................................................................

Truly the pot calling the kettle black when you cannot understand the meaning of ALL.

 

[Red Baker]

Where is that written?

@MTMattie

The question should be......... why would anyone think it is written for anyone else other than God's children?

To whom were the epistles written to? You answer that question. Truly, who can understand them,? Not the unregenerate. The word of God is for God's children.....

2 Timothy 3:16​

“All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:” That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.”

The man of God is a collective noun meaning all who worship God and teach, preach his word.

 

[ProDeo]

@ProDeo

I did not change the subject, I gave you the sense of how we are to understand the world as used both by John the Baptist, and John the apostle and Jesus in John 3:16 and explained by Paul in such scriptures as :

Romans 3:29​

“Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:”

My question was - Do you believe Jesus only died for the elect ?

You answered - It is very clear that he died for his sheep, aka, the elect of God.

I replied with 2 Scripture passages that Christ died for the sins of the whole world for believers and unbelievers, for believers to salvation, for unbelievers to punishment.

So, do you still believe - It is very clear that he died for his sheep, aka, the elect of God. ?

 

[Red Baker]

I am completely unwilling to contradict Jesus in either case, so I seek to understand what He meant in both cases.

Brother I believe this to be so with you and have no reason to believe otherwise, even though we disagree. Let me get caught up first, then I'll post to you.

 

[Red Baker]

So, do you still believe - It is very clear that he died for his sheep, aka, the elect of God. ?

John 10:15​

“As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.”

If Jesus laid down his life for all, then this scripture would have no meaning whatsoever.

John 10:16​

“And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.”

 

[Johann]

I would argue that verse 29 is actually referring to "those who love God" in verse 28. Verse 29 begins with " ὅτι οὓς προέγνω", For (because) those he foreknew. Here the hoti is a conjunction meaning causatively because. Thus verses 28 and 29 are saying, "all things work together for those who love God because those He foreknew He....."

Therefore it is those whom He foreknew would love Him that God predestined, called, justified and glorified.

Noted @Jim and you are correct.

Rom 8:27 And He Who searches the hearts of men knows what is in the mind of the [Holy] Spirit [what His intent is], because the Spirit intercedes and pleads [before God] in behalf of the saints according to and in harmony with God's will. [Psa_139:1-2]
Rom 8:28 We are assured and know that [N1God being a partner in their labor] all things work together and are [fitting into a plan] for good to and for those who love God and are called according to [His] design and purpose.


Rom 8:27 And δὲ the [One] ὁ searching ἐραυνῶν - τὰς hearts καρδίας knows οἶδεν what [is] τί the τὸ mindset φρόνημα of the τοῦ Spirit, Πνεύματος, because ὅτι He intercedes ἐντυγχάνει for ὑπὲρ [the] saints ἁγίων. according to κατὰ God. Θεὸν
Rom 8:28 And δὲ we know Οἴδαμεν that ὅτι - (ὁ God θεὸς) works together συνεργεῖ all things πάντα for εἰς good ἀγαθόν, to those τοῖς loving ἀγαπῶσιν - τὸν God, Θεὸν to those τοῖς being οὖσιν. called κλητοῖς according to κατὰ [His] purpose, πρόθεσιν

Your interpretation aligns well with the Greek syntax and logical flow of Romans 8:28-29, and your identification of ὅτι (hóti) as a causal conjunction meaning “because” is grammatically correct. Here’s a breakdown of why your interpretation is correct:

1. Syntactical Flow Between Romans 8:28-29
Romans 8:28 states:
Οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι τοῖς ἀγαπῶσι τὸν θεὸν πάντα συνεργεῖ εἰς ἀγαθόν, τοῖς κατὰ πρόθεσιν κλητοῖς οὖσιν.
"And we know that all things work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to [His] purpose."

Romans 8:29 begins:
ὅτι οὓς προέγνω, καὶ προώρισε συμμόρφους τῆς εἰκόνος τοῦ Υἱοῦ αὐτοῦ...
"Because those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son..."

The conjunction ὅτι introduces verse 29 and explains why all things work together for good in verse 28.

The relative pronoun οὓς refers back to τοῖς ἀγαπῶσι τὸν θεόν ("those who love God") in 8:28.

Thus, Romans 8:29 clarifies and expands upon who "those who love God" are—they are the ones whom He foreknew and predestined to be conformed to Christ.

2. Meaning of προέγνω (proegnō) – "Foreknew"
προγινώσκω (proginōskō) literally means “to know beforehand” but in biblical usage often connotes relational knowledge, not just prescient knowledge.

Many scholars argue that προέγνω here does not mean simple foreknowledge of future events, but foreknowing persons relationally (cf. Amos 3:2, "You only have I known among all families of the earth").

Thus, "those whom He foreknew" are those whom God set His love upon beforehand, aligning with τοῖς ἀγαπῶσι τὸν θεόν in verse 28.

3. Theological and Contextual Consistency
Your interpretation maintains the logical connection between 8:28 and 8:29, showing that God's purpose in predestination is tied to His foreknowledge of those who love Him.

The phrase συμμόρφους τῆς εἰκόνος τοῦ υἱοῦ αὐτοῦ ("conformed to the image of His Son") affirms that God's goal in predestination is not arbitrary selection but transformation into Christ’s likeness.

This aligns with Romans 8:30, where the predestined are also called, justified, and glorified, emphasizing God's relational purpose rather than mere determinism.


So yes- your interpretation is correct both syntactically and theologically. Romans 8:29 expands upon verse 28, explaining that those who love God (8:28) are the same ones God foreknew (8:29), and thus predestined. Your recognition of ὅτι as a causal conjunction further strengthens this connection.

"predestined" The terms "foreknow" (proginôskô) or "predestine" (proorizô) are both compounds with the preposition "before" (pro) and therefore, should be translated "to know before," "to set bounds before," or "mark off before."
The definitive passages on predestination in the NT are Rom_8:28-30; Eph_1:3-14 and Romans 9. These texts obviously stress that God is sovereign. He is in total control of all things, including human history. There is a preset divine redemption plan being worked out in time. However, this plan is not arbitrary or selective. It is based not only on God's sovereignty and foreknowledge, but on His unchanging character of love, mercy and undeserved grace.

We must be careful of our western (American) individualism or our evangelical zeal coloring this wonderful truth.

We must also guard against being polarized into the historical, theological conflicts between Augustine versus Pelegius or Calvinism versus Arminianism.

Predestination is not a doctrine meant to limit God's love, grace, and mercy nor to exclude some from the gospel. It is meant to strengthen believers by molding their worldview. God is for all mankind (cf. Joh_3:16; 1Ti_2:4; 2Pe_3:9). God is in control of all things.

Who or what can separate us from Him (cf. Rom_8:31-39)? Predestination forms one of two ways to view life. God views all history as present; humans are time bound. Our perspective and mental abilities are limited. There is no contradiction between God's sovereignty and mankind's free will. It is a covenantal structure. This is another example of biblical truth given in dialectical tension

Biblical doctrines are usually presented from different perspectives. They often appear paradoxical. The truth is a balance between the seemingly opposite pairs.

We must not remove the tension by picking one of the truths. We must not isolate any biblical truth into a theological system unrelated to a specific context.
It is also important to add that the goal of election is not only heaven when we die, but Christlikeness now (cf. Eph_1:4; Eph_2:10)! We were chosen to be "holy and blameless." God chooses to change us so that others may see the change and respond by faith to Him in Christ. Predestination is not a personal privilege but a covenantal responsibility!

Glad to know you study the syntax, grammar and morphology of the Koine Greek Text brother.

Johann.

 

[synergy]

We know that Samaritans were called "Samaritan" by Jews and not called Jews. Samaritans were the offspring of the Assyrian conquest of the ten northern kingdom tribes and their exile out of the Holy Land and into and among Gentiles and Gentile lands.
But what are the offspring of the two southern kingdom tribes called as a result of their conquest and exile to Babylon and in and among other Gentile lands? Where are they identified in the gospels of the letters (epistles)?

From 72q BC until the advent of Christ about 25-30 generations of Jews and mixed heritage Jews grew up without a nation in Gentile lands heavily influenced by Greek culture (Hellenized.) Then from 586 BC to Christ were about 15-20 generations of Jews and mixed heritage Jews who grew up in Gentile lands as Gentile heavily influenced by Greek culture. Where are these offspring of Judah and Benjamin with Gentiles through rape, concubinage, slavery, and forced or otherwise marriage to survive. Where are they mentioned in Scripture?

The New Covenant prophesied by Jeremiah 31:31-34 is only the Mosaic Covenant fulfilled by Christ. All Jeremiah does is prophesy the result and no mechanisms of covenant as is found in the Abraham Covenant and the Mosaic Covenant. The Abraham Covenant records what God is going to give, and Abraham's response as part of his responsibility is to circumcise.
The Mosaic Covenant records God giving the children of Israel His Law which covered every aspect of Hebrew life from social, moral, and ceremonial mechanisms and the only requirement from the children of Israel is obedience. The New Covenant doesn't have such descriptions of quid pro quo. All it records is what God will do absent any requirement from the House of Israel (ten northern kingdom tribes), and the House of Judah (two southern kingdom tribes.) Why is that? God requires nothing from the House of Israel and Judah in the New Covenant. Why is that?

No Jew, religious leaders, elders, even the common people would ever seek to circumcise a non-Hebrew Gentile nor to command a non-Hebrew Gentile to obedience to the Law of Moses. Why is that? Because all Jewry knows that the covenants were made with Abraham and with his seed and Gentiles do not come from Abraham's seed. BNUT if a person is the offspring of Jew-Gentile intermingling they are still Abraham's seed and heirs according to the Promise. Saul, Peter, James, John, none of the Jews and Jewish Christians would ever seek to do those things upon non-Hebrew Gentiles. They are NOT the seed of Abraham. Saul knows this. He would never seek to circumcise a non-Hebrew Gentile nor to cause a non-Hebrew Gentile to obey the Law of Moses, something he still did after meeting the Lord on the Damascus road and he was held in high esteem by the Jews and the religious leaders as well.

Fact #1. The Abraham and Mosaic Covenants are between God, Abraham, and Abraham's seed and non-Hebrew Gentiles are not the seed of Abraham. They are the seed of Japheth and Ham.

Fact #2. If Jewish Christians (Saul, Peter, James, John, etc.), were to actually seek to circumcise and non-Hebrew Gentile (a Jew would know what this would mean), or to order or cause a non-Hebrew Gentile to obedience to the Law of Moses this would be vilation of the Law because all Jews know that non-Hebrew Gentiles are NOT included in the Law.

Fact #3. Under the Law the high priest would sacrifice an animal yearly on Yom Kippur to atone for the sins of the children of Israel. There is no Scripture the high priest did this for non-Hebrew Gentiles.

Fact #4. Jesus fulfilled every precept of the Law of Moses. In keeping with the Law of Moses Jesus Christ, as High Priest, died and resurrected to atone finally and eternally for the sins of the children of Israel. Jesus KEPT the Law, a Law that did not include non-Hebrew Gentiles.

Fact #5. The New Covenant is, as Jeremiah prophesied, is between God and the House of ISRAEL and the House of JUDAH, thus covering all twelve tribes of Israel.

This is why Saul wrote this truth:

4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
Gal. 4:4–5.

You're still stuck in the obsolete, vanishing away old covenant.

(Heb 8:13) In that He says, “ A new covenant,” He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.

It's time to embrace the New Covenant, that embraces Gentiles, starting with the Lord's Supper. Read up on the Lords Supper in the link below:

What is the importance of the Lord’s supper / Christian Communion? | GotQuestions.org

What is the importance of the Lord’s supper / Christian Communion? Is Christian Communion a memorial to Jesus’ death and shed blood?

www.gotquestions.org

 

[Kermos]

Wow Red, I did not see that coming

1John 2:1 My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous.
1John 2:2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.
1John 2:3 And by this we know that we have come to know him, if we keep his commandments.
1John 2:4 Whoever says “I know him” but does not keep his commandments is a liar, and the truth is not in him,
1John 2:5 but whoever keeps his word, in him truly the love of God is perfected. By this we may know that we are in him:
1John 2:6 whoever says he abides in him ought to walk in the same way in which he walked.

What more can I say, I am flabbergasted, maybe John the Baptist?

John 1:28 - These things took place in Bethany across the Jordan, where John was baptizing.
John 1:29 - The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!

Do you believe that you lie in the evil one?

The Apostle John wrote "He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for [those of] the whole world" (1 John 2:2) in the same book as he wrote "the whole world lies in the evil one" (1 John 5:19) and "you have overcome the evil one" (1 John 2:13).

Please answer the question, above.

You also quoted "Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!" (John 1:29), and John issued no dependency upon faith here, so the world is cleansed of sin; therefore, your heart's treasure (Matthew 15:16-19, Matthew 6:21) of including everybody everywhere as the world leads to the following:

• the Lamb took away the sin of Glenn of the world. Glenn chose to believe in Christ, so God rewards Glenn with eternal life.
• the Lamb took away the sin of Francis of the world. Francis chose not to believe in Christ, so God punishes Francis with eternal death.
• Conclusion: the Lamb took away the sin of both Glenn and Francis, yet hell is Francis' eternal abode, so the Lamb taking away sin fails to keep Francis out of hell according to your Free-willian Philosophy.

The "world" in both 1 John 2:2 and John 1:29 is constrained to exclusively God's chosen people.

Free-will is a conjured concept of the traditions of men (Matthew 15:9).

In Truth (John 14:6), the Almighty God is Sovereign (Genesis 1:1) in man's salvation and affairs of man (Daniel 4:34-35)! PRAISE THE CHOOSER!!!

 

[Johann]

John 10:15​

“As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.”

If Jesus laid down his life for all, then this scripture would have no meaning whatsoever.

John 10:16​

“And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.”

1Ti_2:4

who desires all people -- God's will that we pray for all men, for God desires all people to be saved. cf. 2Pe_3:9.

Key of verse = all men, cf. vs 1, not for just an "elect" nation of Israel.

come knowledge of the truth -- Refers to hearing, understanding, believing, and committing one's self to following (obeying) the gospel message. It covers all aspects of conversion Rom_10:17; Heb_11:6; Luk_24:47; Heb_5:9;

Four arguments for universal prayer to the One True God -- 1Ti_2:5-6
1) One God for all men
2) One mediator for all
3) Availability of ransom for all
4) Paul's commission to the Gentiles - cf 1Ti_2:7

1Ti 2:3 This τοῦτο [is] good καλὸν and καὶ acceptable ἀπόδεκτον before ἐνώπιον God Θεοῦ, our ἡμῶν - τοῦ Savior, Σωτῆρος
1Ti 2:4 who ὃς desires θέλει all πάντας men ἀνθρώπους to be saved σωθῆναι and καὶ to come ἐλθεῖν. to εἰς [the] knowledge ἐπίγνωσιν of [the] truth. ἀληθείας
1Ti 2:5 For γὰρ [there is] one Εἷς God Θεός, and καὶ one εἷς mediator μεσίτης between God Θεοῦ and καὶ men, ἀνθρώπων, [the] man ἄνθρωπος Christ Χριστὸς Jesus, Ἰησοῦς,
1Ti 2:6 the [One] ὁ having given δοὺς Himself ἑαυτὸν [as] a ransom ἀντίλυτρον for ὑπὲρ all, πάντων, the τὸ testimony μαρτύριον in their own ἰδίοις· proper times, καιροῖς


. 1 Timothy 2:4 – "Who desires all men to be saved"
Greek: ὃς πάντας ἀνθρώπους θέλει σωθῆναι ("who desires all men to be saved")

The key phrase is πάντας ἀνθρώπους ("all men"), which explicitly refers to all humanity rather than a limited elect group.

This phrase is contextually linked to verse 1: δεήσεις, προσευχὰς, ἐντεύξεις, εὐχαριστίας ὑπὲρ πάντων ἀνθρώπων ("supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks be made for all men").

Since Paul instructs prayer for all men, it would be inconsistent to claim that "all men" in verse 4 suddenly refers only to the elect.

Cross-references supporting universal salvation’s availability:

2 Peter 3:9 – "The Lord is... not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance."

Ezekiel 18:23 – "Do I take pleasure in the death of the wicked? Rather, am I not pleased when they turn from their ways and live?"

This demonstrates that God’s salvific desire extends beyond an exclusive group.

2. 1 Timothy 2:5 – "One Mediator for All"
Greek: Εἷς γὰρ Θεός, εἷς καὶ μεσίτης Θεοῦ καὶ ἀνθρώπων

The argument follows a universal principle: There is only one God, and only one mediator.

Since the need for mediation applies to all sinners, and since Christ is the only mediator, it follows that His work is applicable to all men, not just a subset.

Cross-references supporting Christ as mediator for all:

Hebrews 2:9 – "He tasted death for everyone (ὑπὲρ παντὸς)."

John 1:29 – "Behold the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world."

1 John 2:2 – "He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world."

Thus, Christ’s mediatorial work is available to all, though it is only effective for those who believe.

3. 1 Timothy 2:6 – "Ransom for All"
Greek: δοὺς ἑαυτὸν ἀντίλυτρον ὑπὲρ πάντων

The word ἀντίλυτρον (antilutron) = "substitute ransom", implying that Christ paid the price on behalf of all men.

The phrase ὑπὲρ πάντων literally means "on behalf of all", which leaves no room for a limited scope.

Cross-references confirming Christ’s ransom for all:

Titus 2:11 – "For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men."

John 3:16 – "For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son..."

Thus, the ransom is provided for all, but applied to those who believe.

What do you do with these verses to your

John 10:16 brother?

all men. or, all conceivable men. **FS171B, +Gen_24:10, All conceivable translates the force of panta without the article [see Herbert Weir Smyth, Greek Grammar, § 1174 c]. This passage makes it abundantly clear that God wills the salvation of every person. The term thelō is used, showing the emotional nature of God’s desire or will to save, even unto the giving of His Son (Jhn_3:16; Jhn_12:32, 2Co_5:14, Eph_2:14, 1Jn_2:2); so not a mere desire. Further, Tit_3:4 declares God is a lover of mankind; again showing an emotional aspect of God’s nature toward mankind. God, as to His very nature, loves mankind as a whole. Thus the whole cannot be divided into elect and unelect, saved and damned (LNT, note b). 1Ti_2:1; 1Ti_2:6, **1Ti_4:10, Pro_8:4, Ezk_18:23; Ezk_18:32, Mat_26:28 note. Jhn_1:7; +Jhn_3:17; +Jhn_4:42, +*Rom_5:18; Rom_11:32, **2Co_5:14, *Tit_2:11, +Heb_2:9, **2Pe_3:9.

Jesus died for pantas ἀνθρώπων but only applicable for those who believe eis Christ Jesus.

Johann.​

 

[MTMattie]

@MTMattie

The question should be......... why would anyone think it is written for anyone else other than God's children?

To whom were the epistles written to? You answer that question. Truly, who can understand them,? Not the unregenerate. The word of God is for God's children.....

2 Timothy 3:16​

“All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:” That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.”

The man of God is a collective noun meaning all who worship God and teach, preach his word.

Your question should be .... To Whom Was the Bible Written and why?​

Let us start by asking who did God intend to read the words of Scripture?
Was it for everyone, or was it only meant to be read by an elite few? The elect only, which generally refers to those chosen by God for a specific purpose, often associated with salvation. This term is used in various contexts, including the chosen people of Israel and believers in Christ, indicating that they are set apart for God's plans and purposes.

To find out who the bible was written for and why we need to consider a number of important points about this issue.

They are as follows:

Fact 1. Scripture was Written to Everyone​

The appeal of the Bible is universal; addressed to all humanity. It is a book that everyone can understand.

The Bible says the following happened when Jesus spoke:

And the common people heard him gladly. (Mark 12:37 KJV)

The multitudes listened and followed Him. They understood exactly what He said.

Jesus encouraged the children to be brought to Him, for they could understand His message. We read the following in Matthew’s gospel:

But Jesus said, Suffer little children, and forbid them not, to come unto me: for of such is the kingdom of heaven. (Matthew 19:14 KJV)

While certain parts of the Scripture are written to individuals and other parts to specific groups, even these have both special and universal application.

All Scripture is beneficial. Paul wrote:

All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works. (2Timothy 3:16-17 KJV)

The New Living Translation says:

All Scripture is inspired by God and is useful to teach us what is true and to make us realize what is wrong in our lives. It straightens us out and teaches us to do what is right. It is God’s way of preparing us in every way, fully equipped for every good thing God wants us to do. (2 timothy 3:16-17 NLT)

The Bible has something to say to everyone.

FACT 2. The Bible Is Written in Everyday Language​

One way that we know the Bible was written for everyone is the language in which it was composed. As recently as about one hundred years ago, we did not possess any Greek writings that were contemporary with the New Testament. The Greek of the New Testament was different from the classical Greek of Plato and Sophocles. Most scholars speculated that it was some special kind of “Holy Ghost” language—not the ordinary speech of that day.

This all changed at the end of the nineteenth century. In a garbage dump in Egypt, the discovery was made of the letters, contracts, receipts, etc. of ordinary people who lived at the same time as Jesus. It became clear from these writings that the New Testament was written in the same common, everyday language of the people, not some special Bible language. This reinforces the idea that the Bible was written to the masses, not just to an elite few.

FACT 3. The Bible Is an Understandable Book​

The Bible has been written in such a way that everyone can understand it. This, of course, does not mean that everyone will understand it, or that any one person will understand everything in it. Neither does it mean that a person will understand it the first time they read it. The more one reads and studies the Bible, the more it will be understood.

The Apostle Paul compared his speaking to the church at Thessalonica as a mother caring and feeding her own children. He wrote:

But we were gentle among you, just as a nursing mother cherishes her own children.(1 Thessalonians 2:7 KJV)

He spoke in plain language that they could understand; in the same way a mother takes care of her children. As the mother speaks to her children in language they can understand, God’s Word speaks to us in language we can understand.

FACT4. Everyone Is Held Responsible to Obey Its Teachings​

Scripture assumes its message is clear because everyone is held responsible to respond to it. The Bible claims to have universal authority over all people everywhere. There are only two categories of people according to the Bible, believers and unbelievers. The New Testament says:

He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him. (John 3:36 KJV)

The New Living Translation reads:

And all who believe in God’s Son have eternal life. Those who don’t obey the Son will never experience eternal life, but the wrath of God remains upon them. (John 3:36 NLT)

The fact that the Bible separates humanity into these two categories is another indication that all people are held responsible to believe its message. Therefore, it is necessary for everyone to know the contents of Scripture, for they alone contain the words of life.

Summary ~​

The evidence demonstrates that the Bible was written to every human being, not to just a select few. We now understand that the language of the New Testament was the common written and spoken language of the time.

The Bible was not written in some special, holy language to meet the needs of a few. Scripture has been composed in such a way as to be understandable to the masses.

Furthermore, God will hold everyone responsible as to how they receive His Word. This is another indication that the Bible was written with everyone in mind. Therefore, every person needs to pay close attention to its message.

 

[Jim]

1Ti_2:4

who desires all people -- God's will that we pray for all men, for God desires all people to be saved. cf. 2Pe_3:9.

Key of verse = all men, cf. vs 1, not for just an "elect" nation of Israel.

come knowledge of the truth -- Refers to hearing, understanding, believing, and committing one's self to following (obeying) the gospel message. It covers all aspects of conversion Rom_10:17; Heb_11:6; Luk_24:47; Heb_5:9;

Four arguments for universal prayer to the One True God -- 1Ti_2:5-6
1) One God for all men
2) One mediator for all
3) Availability of ransom for all
4) Paul's commission to the Gentiles - cf 1Ti_2:7

1Ti 2:3 This τοῦτο [is] good καλὸν and καὶ acceptable ἀπόδεκτον before ἐνώπιον God Θεοῦ, our ἡμῶν - τοῦ Savior, Σωτῆρος
1Ti 2:4 who ὃς desires θέλει all πάντας men ἀνθρώπους to be saved σωθῆναι and καὶ to come ἐλθεῖν. to εἰς [the] knowledge ἐπίγνωσιν of [the] truth. ἀληθείας
1Ti 2:5 For γὰρ [there is] one Εἷς God Θεός, and καὶ one εἷς mediator μεσίτης between God Θεοῦ and καὶ men, ἀνθρώπων, [the] man ἄνθρωπος Christ Χριστὸς Jesus, Ἰησοῦς,
1Ti 2:6 the [One] ὁ having given δοὺς Himself ἑαυτὸν [as] a ransom ἀντίλυτρον for ὑπὲρ all, πάντων, the τὸ testimony μαρτύριον in their own ἰδίοις· proper times, καιροῖς


. 1 Timothy 2:4 – "Who desires all men to be saved"
Greek: ὃς πάντας ἀνθρώπους θέλει σωθῆναι ("who desires all men to be saved")

The key phrase is πάντας ἀνθρώπους ("all men"), which explicitly refers to all humanity rather than a limited elect group.

This phrase is contextually linked to verse 1: δεήσεις, προσευχὰς, ἐντεύξεις, εὐχαριστίας ὑπὲρ πάντων ἀνθρώπων ("supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks be made for all men").

Since Paul instructs prayer for all men, it would be inconsistent to claim that "all men" in verse 4 suddenly refers only to the elect.

Cross-references supporting universal salvation’s availability:

2 Peter 3:9 – "The Lord is... not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance."

Ezekiel 18:23 – "Do I take pleasure in the death of the wicked? Rather, am I not pleased when they turn from their ways and live?"

This demonstrates that God’s salvific desire extends beyond an exclusive group.

2. 1 Timothy 2:5 – "One Mediator for All"
Greek: Εἷς γὰρ Θεός, εἷς καὶ μεσίτης Θεοῦ καὶ ἀνθρώπων

The argument follows a universal principle: There is only one God, and only one mediator.

Since the need for mediation applies to all sinners, and since Christ is the only mediator, it follows that His work is applicable to all men, not just a subset.

Cross-references supporting Christ as mediator for all:

Hebrews 2:9 – "He tasted death for everyone (ὑπὲρ παντὸς)."

John 1:29 – "Behold the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world."

1 John 2:2 – "He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world."

Thus, Christ’s mediatorial work is available to all, though it is only effective for those who believe.

3. 1 Timothy 2:6 – "Ransom for All"
Greek: δοὺς ἑαυτὸν ἀντίλυτρον ὑπὲρ πάντων

The word ἀντίλυτρον (antilutron) = "substitute ransom", implying that Christ paid the price on behalf of all men.

The phrase ὑπὲρ πάντων literally means "on behalf of all", which leaves no room for a limited scope.

Cross-references confirming Christ’s ransom for all:

Titus 2:11 – "For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men."

John 3:16 – "For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son..."

Thus, the ransom is provided for all, but applied to those who believe.

What do you do with these verses to your

John 10:16 brother?​

​

all men. or, all conceivable men. **FS171B, +Gen_24:10, All conceivable translates the force of panta without the article [see Herbert Weir Smyth, Greek Grammar, § 1174 c]. This passage makes it abundantly clear that God wills the salvation of every person. The term thelō is used, showing the emotional nature of God’s desire or will to save, even unto the giving of His Son (Jhn_3:16; Jhn_12:32, 2Co_5:14, Eph_2:14, 1Jn_2:2); so not a mere desire. Further, Tit_3:4 declares God is a lover of mankind; again showing an emotional aspect of God’s nature toward mankind. God, as to His very nature, loves mankind as a whole. Thus the whole cannot be divided into elect and unelect, saved and damned (LNT, note b). 1Ti_2:1; 1Ti_2:6, **1Ti_4:10, Pro_8:4, Ezk_18:23; Ezk_18:32, Mat_26:28 note. Jhn_1:7; +Jhn_3:17; +Jhn_4:42, +*Rom_5:18; Rom_11:32, **2Co_5:14, *Tit_2:11, +Heb_2:9, **2Pe_3:9.​

​

Jesus died for pantas ἀνθρώπων but only applicable for those who believe eis Christ Jesus.​

​

Johann.​

Amen and Amen. It is inconceivable that God would not want every human being to be saved. It is inconceivable that God would want anyone to be eternally condemned.

John 3:16 "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him. 18 Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.

That says it all. The word "world" in verse 16 cannot mean only the (Calvinist) elect and then in verse 17 mean only the (Calvinist) unelect.

 

[synergy]

@synergy

I will only say a few words, because I refuse to cast God's precious pearls before the swine's in mystery Babylon's religious sector who have no true love for them.

There's a very little chance that people from your former Babylon church are actually reading this. So I wouldn't worry too much about that concern.

Let it be said very clearly that God's children to not represent any system and which generally can be seen on forums where some use fictitious pseudonym when identifying themselves, yet others like you boldly come out to defend a system that is contrary to testimony the word of God, and chose a name to represent what they believe, so, I do not have to ask who around here defend armenianism, I know by your very own choice of a name you desire others to call you. Calvinism is much closer to the truth than armenianism, yet still isn't the truth, so I prefer to defend the word of God.

I use the term Synergy in the same sense that the Apostles called themselves Synergists (συνεργοι or συνεργουντος) in Mark 1:20 and 1 Cor 3:9.

In Mark 1:20, the Greek words του κυριου συνεργουντος translate to Lord’s Synergists/Fellow Workers and in 1 Cor 3:9 the Greek words συνεργοι θεου translate to God’s Synergists/Fellow Workers.

If you want to know the answer to that question then read Foxe's Book of Martyrs, your fathers killed men who preached pure grace and who rejected a gospel that's built upon "man having a active part" in his salvation from sin and condemnation.

The word "believe" itself is an active verb. So unless you wish to rewrite English, man does have an active believing part in his salvation.

 

[Johann]

Amen and Amen. It is inconceivable that God would not want every human being to be saved. It is inconceivable that God would want anyone to be eternally condemned.

John 3:16 "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him. 18 Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.

That says it all. The word "world" in verse 16 cannot mean only the (Calvinist) elect and then in verse 17 mean only the (Calvinist) unelect.

Problematic for those who isolate verses from their broader context, @Jim, since Scripture forms a cohesive whole, and we must not selectively choose passages that align with our theology while neglecting the rest.

God bless brother.

Johann.

 

[Johann]

The word "believe" itself is an active verb. So unless you wish to rewrite English, man does have an active believing part in his salvation.

100% correct here @synergy

The word "believe" (πιστεύω, pisteuō) in the Greek New Testament is a present active verb, meaning it expresses an ongoing, continuous action performed by the subject. This grammatical structure directly refutes the notion that faith is a passive or monergistic reception, as some deterministic theological systems claim.

1. John 3:16 – "Whoever Believes" (πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων)
Greek: πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται ἀλλ’ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον

Translation: "Everyone who believes in Him should not perish but have eternal life."

Key Analysis: πιστεύων is a present active participle, meaning "everyone who is believing" or "who continues to believe." This shows that believing is something the person does, not something done to them passively.

Cross-reference:

John 1:12 – "To all who received Him, to those who believed in His name, He gave the right to become children of God."

Here, receiving and believing are active responses of individuals to the gospel.

2. Acts 16:31 – "Believe and You Will Be Saved"
Greek: Πίστευσον ἐπὶ τὸν Κύριον Ἰησοῦν, καὶ σωθήσῃ

Translation: "Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved."

Key Analysis: Πίστευσον is an aorist active imperative, meaning a command for the individual to act—"you must believe." This would make no sense if faith were entirely passive.

Cross-reference:

Romans 10:9 – "If you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus and believe (πιστεύσῃς) in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved."

The verb πιστεύσῃς is aorist active subjunctive, meaning it is something the person must do in order for salvation to occur.

3. Hebrews 11:6 – "He Who Comes to God Must Believe"
Greek: χωρὶς δὲ πίστεως ἀδύνατον εὐαρεστῆσαι· πιστεῦσαι γὰρ δεῖ τὸν προσερχόμενον τῷ Θεῷ ὅτι ἔστιν

Translation: "Without faith it is impossible to please Him, for he who comes to God must believe that He exists and that He rewards those who diligently seek Him."

Key Analysis:

πιστεῦσαι is aorist active infinitive—meaning "to believe" is something the person must do.

προσερχόμενον is a present middle participle, meaning "he who is coming to God"—again, indicating a volitional action of the person.

Cross-reference:

Luke 8:12 – "The devil comes and takes away the word from their hearts so that they may not believe and be saved."

Clearly, believing is necessary for salvation, but the devil prevents some from doing so.

4. John 5:40 – "You Are Unwilling to Come to Me"
Greek: καὶ οὐ θέλετε ἐλθεῖν πρός με ἵνα ζωὴν ἔχητε.

Translation: "Yet you are not willing to come to Me that you may have life."

Key Analysis: θέλετε is present active indicative ("you are not willing"), showing that the refusal to come to Christ is an active decision of the will.

Cross-reference:

Matthew 23:37 – "How often I wanted to gather your children together... but you were not willing (οὐκ ἠθελήσατε)."

The refusal of belief is active, implying that believing itself is also an active choice.


In every case, the Greek morphology of πιστεύω (to believe) is an active verb, consistently indicating human agency in faith. Scripture portrays belief as an ongoing, continuous act of the person, not a passive state imposed by an external force. Faith is indeed a gift, in that it is granted by God through the preaching of the Word (Romans 10:17), but the act of believing is the individual's responsibility.

I pray this will liberate those who are still sitting on the fence or are in bondage to Calvinism.

Johann.

 

[Jim]

There's a very little chance that people from your former Babylon church are actually reading this. So I wouldn't worry too much about that concern.

I use the term Synergy in the same sense that the Apostles called themselves Synergists (συνεργοι or συνεργουντος) in Mark 1:20 and 1 Cor 3:9.

In Mark 1:20, the Greek words του κυριου συνεργουντος translate to Lord’s Synergists/Fellow Workers and in 1 Cor 3:9 the Greek words συνεργοι θεου translate to God’s Synergists/Fellow Workers.

The word "believe" itself is an active verb. So unless you wish to rewrite English, man does have an active believing part in his salvation.

Just a slight correction. That is Mark 16:20.

 

[synergy]

Just a slight correction. That is Mark 16:20.

Thanks buddy. There's at least one person (you) who actually reads my posts.