All Claims of The Son's Deity

but no one is currently born from above
if incarnated here,
since above refers to the other reality,
not this earth....

that's the point,
His 144k will meet Christ on the clouds soon
and return Home to eden paradise in the other reality

Christ made legally possible us to be saved
rapture is the de facto of that
You can already be there in a sense. It's not something you should have to wait for.

Ephesians 2
6And God raised us up with Christ and seated us with Him in the heavenly realms in Christ Jesus,
 
Matthew 1:1 --- the 'book' of the genealogy of Jesus Christ the son of David..... 'book' derived from the Greek word biblos from which we get the word 'Bible'. (Mark 12:26; Luke 3:4, 20:42; etc.) :)
Why the word "Bible" not one of the definition?

G976
βίβλος biblos
Thayer Definition:
1) a written book, a roll, a scroll
 
It depends in what sense you're referring to the word "god." The devil is also called god in the Bible, as are angels, and other humans. Your argument for the deity of Jesus is no different than if you were trying to deify Moses or the devil. Jesus nor anyone else are the proper definitive God according to Scripture. There isn't a trinity.
Are there any confirmation that they (devil, angels and other humans) are really God?
I believe contentions are to Jesus only by the Arians.
Cool, may I ask which version of 2 Peter 1:4 that is?
See NASB, NASB+ and Westcott and Hort's "The New Testament in the Original Greek."
Notice, it is not a translation, it is in Greek.

(NASB) 2Pe 1:4 Through these He has granted to us His precious and magnificent promises, so that by them you may become partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world on account of lust.

(NASB+) 2Pe 1:4 Through N1theseG3739 He has grantedG1433 to us His preciousG5093 and magnificentG3176 R1promisesG1862, soG2443 thatG2443 by them you may becomeG1096 R2partakersG2844 of the
divineG2304 natureG5449, having R3escapedG668 the R4corruptionG5356 that is in R5the worldG2889 onG1722 accountG1722 ofG1722 lustG1939.

(Greek NT Westcott and Hort+) 2Pe 1:4 διG1223 PREP ωνG3739 R-GPF ταG3588 T-NPN τιμιαG5093 A-NPN καιG2532 CONJ μεγισταG3173 A-NPN-S ημινG1473 P-1DP επαγγελματαG1862 N-NPN δεδωρηταιG1433 V-RPI-3S ιναG2443 CONJ διαG1223 PREP τουτωνG3778 D-GPN γενησθεG1096 V-2ADS-2P
θειαςG2304 A-GSF κοινωνοιG2844 A-NPM φυσεωςG5449 N-GSF αποφυγοντεςG668 V-2AAP-NPM τηςG3588 T-GSF ενG1722 PREP τωG3588 T-DSM κοσμωG2889 N-DSM ενG1722 PREP επιθυμιαG1939 N-DSF φθοραςG5356 N-GSF
 
There are no originals. All are translations and copies of translations.
The placement were not originals, from animal skins (parchment/vellum), the fibrous papyrus plant, stone, clay tablets, pottery shards (ostraca) and wax tablets. The two most common writing surfaces for biblical texts were papyrus, a durable material made from reeds, and parchment, which was made from prepared animal skins. But the wordings copied were from originals languages, Hebrew and Greek. Not from translations.

I believe I've already quoted John 1:18 from "The New Testament in the Original Greek" by Wescott and Hort.
Notice, It is not a translation, it is in Greek.
 
The placement were not originals, from animal skins (parchment/vellum), the fibrous papyrus plant, stone, clay tablets, pottery shards (ostraca) and wax tablets. The two most common writing surfaces for biblical texts were papyrus, a durable material made from reeds, and parchment, which was made from prepared animal skins. But the wordings copied were from originals languages, Hebrew and Greek. Not from translations.

I believe I've already quoted John 1:18 from "The New Testament in the Original Greek" by Wescott and Hort.
Notice, It is not a translation, it is in Greek.
The verse you are referring to does not fit with any other part of the Bible. If I bring a tree to an automobile factory and ask them to include it in the Engine. They are going to tell me that a tree part does not fit with the rest of the car. You trinity guys are very good at holding on to a verse while ignoring a gazillion other verses on the same subject that says something different. Then you swear your one verse must be there and if I can't see it then I'm rejucting Scripture.

cc: @mikesw
 
Are there any confirmation that they (devil, angels and other humans) are really God?
I believe contentions are to Jesus only by the Arians.

See NASB, NASB+ and Westcott and Hort's "The New Testament in the Original Greek."
Notice, it is not a translation, it is in Greek.

(NASB) 2Pe 1:4 Through these He has granted to us His precious and magnificent promises, so that by them you may become partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world on account of lust.

(NASB+) 2Pe 1:4 Through N1theseG3739 He has grantedG1433 to us His preciousG5093 and magnificentG3176 R1promisesG1862, soG2443 thatG2443 by them you may becomeG1096 R2partakersG2844 of the
divineG2304 natureG5449, having R3escapedG668 the R4corruptionG5356 that is in R5the worldG2889 onG1722 accountG1722 ofG1722 lustG1939.

(Greek NT Westcott and Hort+) 2Pe 1:4 διG1223 PREP ωνG3739 R-GPF ταG3588 T-NPN τιμιαG5093 A-NPN καιG2532 CONJ μεγισταG3173 A-NPN-S ημινG1473 P-1DP επαγγελματαG1862 N-NPN δεδωρηταιG1433 V-RPI-3S ιναG2443 CONJ διαG1223 PREP τουτωνG3778 D-GPN γενησθεG1096 V-2ADS-2P
θειαςG2304 A-GSF κοινωνοιG2844 A-NPM φυσεωςG5449 N-GSF αποφυγοντεςG668 V-2AAP-NPM τηςG3588 T-GSF ενG1722 PREP τωG3588 T-DSM κοσμωG2889 N-DSM ενG1722 PREP επιθυμιαG1939 N-DSF φθοραςG5356 N-GSF
I mean, you're saying "Jesus is god" without really explaining how he is other than Hebrews 1:8 says of the Son the exact same thing Psalm 45:6 says of Solomon. So how does your argument mean Jesus is actually The God when others are also called the god as well? You have not clearly explained what sets Jesus apart. Vocabulary alone isn't enough. Did he do anything that would somehow indicate he is God? If so, what is it?
 
Scrolls and Scrips is the same as Bible. To say the sun or stars or even the lights in the sky is the same as saying the stars. There's no word in the Bible that's the same as Trinity.
You seek for the word "Trinity," same of me of the word "Bible" in the Bible not scrolls or scripts.
Any verse?
The verse you are referring to does not fit with any other part of the Bible. If I bring a tree to an automobile factory and ask them to include it in the Engine. They are going to tell me that a tree part does not fit with the rest of the car. You trinity guys are very good at holding on to a verse while ignoring a gazillion other verses on the same subject that says something different. Then you swear your one verse must be there and if I can't see it then I'm rejucting Scripture.

cc: @mikesw
I've just quoted literal word for word Bible translations that aims to maintain the highest degree of accuracy to the original languages, and Greek by Westcott and Hort, supported by the oldest manuscripts, the papyrus 66 and papyrus 75. There are various readings but were not described as the original wordings.

Yes, also Arians tried to change Bible wordings just to align with their beliefs, and heavy reliance to paraphrase translations.
A product from the translators thoughts not from the original Bible words.

(NAS95) John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

(NAS95+) John 1:18 R1NoG3762 oneG3762 has seenG3708 GodG2316 at anyG4455 timeG4455; R2the onlyG3439 begottenG3439 GodG2316 who is R3in the bosomG2859 of the FatherG3962, R4He has explainedG1834 Him.

(Greek NT Westcott and Hort+) John 1:18 θεονG2316 N-ASM ουδειςG3762 A-NSM-N εωρακενG3708 V-RAI-3S-ATT πωποτεG4455 ADV μονογενηςG3439 A-NSM θεοςG2316 N-NSM οG3588 T-NSM ωνG1510 V-PAP-NSM ειςG1519 PREP τονG3588 T-ASM κολπονG2859 N-ASM τουG3588 T-GSM πατροςG3962 N-GSM εκεινοςG1565 D-NSM εξηγησατοG1834 V-ADI-3S
 
@eve, @Victoria, @Selah,
GINOLJC, great dialogue between you all ..... like that. if you all don't mind... may 101G ask just 3 question? not for argument but for REASONING.

#1. John 1:3 "All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made." now this, Isaiah 44:24 "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;"

is this the same ONE PERSON who "MADE ALL THINGS?" and for definitions, Alone: "having no one else present". and the term by: as in by himself, means, "3. Through, or with, denoting the agent, means, instrument or cause; as, "a city is destroyed by fire;" "profit is made by commerce;" "to take by force." This use answers to that of the Latin per, through, denoting a passing, acting, agency, or instrumentality." source the Noah Webster's 1828 Dictionary of American English. so again, is this the same ONE PERSON who "MADE ALL THINGS". BY himself, and ALONE, yes or no?

#2. Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he." notice the term "WITH" ....... the FIRST is "WITH" the Last, kept this in mind, now this. Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." Remember, the "LORD". all caps is the First and ... "WITH" .... the LAST in Isaiah 41:4 above, right. but here in Isaiah 48:12 the "LORD" all caps is the FIRST and "ALSO" the LAST. so, is the FIRST the SAME ONE PERSON who is the LAST? and for definition, "Also", means .... having no one else present. READ THAT DEFINITION once more. so again is this the same ONE PERSON, the First and the Last, that the first was with the Last? yes, or no.

#3. a. Acts 2:32 "This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses." b. Acts 3:26 "Unto you first God, having raised up his Son Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities." c. Acts 5:30 "The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree." one more, d. Acts 13:33 "God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee."

so, without a doubt "GOD" raised up Jesus ... Correct? now this, LISTEN CAREFULLY, John 2:18 "Then answered the Jews and said unto him, What sign shewest thou unto us, seeing that thou doest these things?" John 2:19 "Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up." John 2:20 "Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?" John 2:21 "But he spake of the temple of his body." John 2:22 "When therefore he was risen from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this unto them; and they believed the scripture, and the word which Jesus had said."

Question, "WHO RAISED UP THE Lord JESUS BODY? was it God, The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, as stated in c. Acts 5:30 above, or was it Jesus himself as stated by Jesus himself in John 2:19 above? so, WHO raised up the body of the Lord Jesus? think, and REASON before you answer the questions above. thanks in advance.

remember, this is not for argument, but for "REASONING".... scripture, Isaiah 1:18 "Come now, and let us reason together, saith the LORD: though your sins be as scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they be red like crimson, they shall be as wool."

as with God, likewise with his children, "LET'S REASON".... together, thank you in advance. looking to hear your responses.

101G.
Greetings, 101G. Great questions! Sure, I'd be glad to answer them.

Answer to Q #1: Yes, the apostle John tells us all things were made by Him "aka" Jesus Christ. We already know that Jesus Christ is the Word, "aka" He spoke everything into existence, as written in John 1:1-3. Notice however, only in the KJB, it says "by" Him, not "through Him." Modern translations attack His deity here, including the NKJB, which is why I use the authorized KJB only.

"And God said, Let there be light: and there was light." Genesis 1:3

"By the word of the LORD were the heavens made; and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth. He gathereth the waters of the sea together as an heap: he layeth up the depth in storehouses. Let all the earth fear the LORD: let all the inhabitants of the world stand in awe of him. For he spake, and it was done; he commanded, and it stood fast." Psalm 33:6-9

Answer to Q #2:
I can see the confusion here 😂 The LORD is speaking of generations, Him being w/ them from the beginning to the last. When you read the entire chapter, you'll notice it's about the LORD giving encouragement to Israel...

"Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he." Isaiah 14:4 ...

"But thou, Israel, art my servant, Jacob whom I have chosen, the seed of Abraham my friend... For I the LORD thy God will hold thy right hand, saying unto thee, Fear not; I will help thee. Fear not, thou worm Jacob, and ye men of Israel; I will help thee, saith the LORD, and thy redeemer, the Holy One of Israel." Isaiah 41:8; 13-14

Israel is God's son, even His firstborn (i.e. Exodus 4:22). Protecting your child, of course, is what any Father would want to do, right?

Answer to Q #3: It was a joint effort involving the eternal Godhead, & not just God the Father & God the Son (i.e. Father, Son, Holy Spirit in unison), working together, acting as one; collectively. Did you know the following about the Holy Ghost/Spirit?

He's a Comforter: "But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you." John 14:26

He speaks: "Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come." John 16:13

"As they ministered to the Lord, and fasted, the Holy Ghost said, Separate me Barnabas and Saul for the work whereunto I have called them... So they, being sent forth by the Holy Ghost, departed unto Seleucia; and from thence they sailed to Cyprus." Acts 13:2; 4

He could be grieved: "And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption." Ephesians 4:30

He could be quenched: "Quench not the Spirit." 1 Thessalonians 5:19

He could be LIED to: "But Peter said, Ananias, why hath Satan filled thine heart to lie to the Holy Ghost, and to keep back part of the price of the land? Whiles it remained, was it not thine own? and after it was sold, was it not in thine own power? why hast thou conceived this thing in thine heart? thou hast not lied unto men, but unto God." Acts 5:3-4

Lastly, He raised Jesus up as well: "And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness. But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you." Romans 8:10-11

Understanding the Godhead is complex, I know. It takes a lot of studying & allowing God Himself to teach us... not scholars, not men. It's about a personal relationship w/ God. It requires faith (i.e. Romans 10:17), for it's impossible to please Him w/out faith (i.e. Hebrews 11:6). Hope this helps! 🙂
 
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I mean, you're saying "Jesus is god" without really explaining how he is other than Hebrews 1:8 says of the Son the exact same thing Psalm 45:6 says of Solomon. So how does your argument mean Jesus is actually The God when others are also called the god as well? You have not clearly explained what sets Jesus apart. Vocabulary alone isn't enough. Did he do anything that would somehow indicate he is God? If so, what is it?
There are many verses that refers Jesus as God, other that John 1:18, John 1:1, 1Tim 3:16 and many others.
Jesus as "God was manifest in the flesh," See it in Greek below;

(KJV) 1Ti 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

(KJV+) 1Ti 3:16 AndG2532 without controversyG3672 greatG3173 isG2076 theG3588 mysteryG3466 of godliness:G2150
GodG2316 was manifestG5319 inG1722 the flesh,G4561 justifiedG1344 inG1722 the Spirit,G4151 seenG3700 of angels,G32 preachedG2784 untoG1722 the Gentiles,G1484 believed onG4100 inG1722 the world,G2889 received upG353 intoG1722 glory.G1391

(Greek NT Byzantine+) 1Ti 3:16 καιG2532 CONJ ομολογουμενωςG3672 ADV μεγαG3173 A-NSN εστινG1510 V-PAI-3S τοG3588 T-NSN τηςG3588 T-GSF ευσεβειαςG2150 N-GSF μυστηριονG3466 N-NSN
θεοςG2316 N-NSM εφανερωθηG5319 V-API-3S ενG1722 PREP σαρκιG4561 N-DSF εδικαιωθηG1344 V-API-3S ενG1722 PREP πνευματιG4151 N-DSN ωφθηG3708 V-API-3S αγγελοιςG32 N-DPM εκηρυχθηG2784 V-API-3S ενG1722 PREP εθνεσινG1484 N-DPN επιστευθηG4100 V-API-3S ενG1722 PREP κοσμωG2889 N-DSM ανεληφθηG353 V-API-3S ενG1722 PREP δοξηG1391 N-DSF

Arians always argue about Jesus nature, while we believe that;
1. There in only one God,
2. We also believe that Jesus is man,
3. What we need from them is to cite just a single verse that say "Jesus is not God."
4. I believe that would settle everything.
 
So you agree that Jesus as the Son of God is begotten offspring?

Also, the jury is out on1 John 5:7. Whether or not the people who translated the Bible had salvation or not is not really the point. The point is they had intellectual and scholarly honestly and removed 1 John 5:7 from the Bible because it's a blatant forgery. It isn't just publishers who support this, but 1 John 5:7 being removed from the Bible has widespread support among Catholics and Protestants. 1 John 5:7 isn't Scripture and doesn't belong in the Bible. And why do you want it in the Bible anyway? It doesn't contain the Trinitarian formula.

I think I see where you are coming from, though. You have your scholars, sources, publishers, and versions/translations that you prefer.

Why do you think Catholics would want Protestants to not believe in the trinity
This should answer those questions:
https://berean-apologetics.community.forum/posts/200630/
 
i assume you meant well with this... however it's not you, rather, a quote wall (from what sect/cult i have no idea but sounds evangelical!) ... and you are not talking to me personally, therefore i cannot relate and can't reply since i only talk to a soul directly not through printouts.

the content pasted feels to me to reflect the corrupt scroll peddled by vatican/esau etc. Please tell me what You think... You.

I don't follow the platonic ideas presented in that post. sorry.

I really am.

If you want to talk I am here but quote walls are not you talking to me. Which is the only way I can talk to you, if you actually talk to me.
I'm not entirely sure you understood what I posted regarding religion. Again, I'm not religious 'nor am I affiliated w/ any denomination, Roman Catholicism included. I'm not an evangelical either, just a Christian sharing her faith w/ others.

I have a personal relationship w/ God. It could only be made possible by reading His Word & His Word alone. This is how He talks to us. When you have a relationship w/ someone, you get to know them. We don't make speculations, create a fantasy of them in our mind, don't claim to know them through a third party "aka" a religion... no, we get to know them directly, & personally.

He hasn't given me a spirit of fear. Instead, it's a spirit of love, & of a sound mind. That doesn't sound so bad, does it? He also is not the author of confusion. I'm not confused as long as I steer clear from religion/traditions of men. That doesn't sound so bad either, does it? The fruit of the Spirit are all positive, not negative.

Like w/ any other you choose to have a relationship w/, you get to know them directly, & personally. Satan is the complete opposite, which by my observation appears to have you fearful as well as confused. God certainly isn't feminine in any way, shape, or form. Jesus Christ was 100% masculine. Jesus Christ is love. As a father would a child, God disciplines. If anything, that's conviction you feel... just as a child in the wrong would feel. God is not a monster. He's a loving Father.
 
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Greetings, 101G. Great questions! Sure, I'd be glad to answer them.

Answer to Q #1: Yes, the apostle John tells us all things were made by Him "aka" Jesus Christ. We already know that Jesus Christ is the Word, "aka" He spoke everything into existence, as written in John 1:1-3. Notice however, only in the KJB, it says "by" Him, not "through Him." Modern translations attack His deity here, including the NKJB, which is why I use the authorized KJB only.

"And God said, Let there be light: and there was light." Genesis 1:3

"By the word of the LORD were the heavens made; and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth. He gathereth the waters of the sea together as an heap: he layeth up the depth in storehouses. Let all the earth fear the LORD: let all the inhabitants of the world stand in awe of him. For he spake, and it was done; he commanded, and it stood fast." Psalm 33:6-9
GINOLJC, to all.
first thanks for taking your time in answering. second, let's take this one step at a time. you said, "Notice however, only in the KJB, it says "by" Him, not "through Him." Modern translations attack His deity here, including the NKJB, which is why I use the authorized KJB only."
GREAT on using the KJV, but the KJV do use "THROUGH", but just in another word instead, and here's why. according to the Noah Webster's 1828 Dictionary of American English the term "BY" as in by myself means,
BY, prep.
1. Near; close; as, sit by me; that house stands by a river.
[L. pressus.]
2. Near, in motion; as, to move, go or pass by a church. But it seems, in other phrases, or with a verb in the past time, to signify past, gone beyond. "The procession is gone by;" "the hour is gone by;" "John went by." We now use past as an equivalent word. The procession is gone past. Gone by is in strictness tautology, as now used; but I apprehend by signifies primarily near.
3. Through, or with, denoting the agent, means, instrument or cause; as, "a city is destroyed by fire;" "profit is made by commerce;" "to take by force." This use answers to that of the Latin per, through, denoting a passing, acting, agency, or instrumentality.

NOTE Definition #3. the term "by" as in by himself, (by myself), in Isaiah 44:24 means THROUGH. so the agent or the means, used here is his OWN WORDS, just as the bible and you states, "For he spake, and it was done", because he was ALONE when he CREATED all things........ "BY" his own words. so Isaiah 44:24 can also read, Isaiah 44:24 "Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by/(THROUGH) myself;"

now, knowing this, it is the LORD all caps who made all things by/through himself by ... "SPEAKING" ..... all things into existence.

now, can you agree that the LORD in Isaiah 44:24, (who was "ALONE", and NOTE, ALONE, means, "having no one else present"), is the Word, (who is God), John 1:1 is the same one Person, yes or no?

think before you answer. be blessed, and thanks for responding.

101G.
 
Answer to Q #2: I can see the confusion here 😂 The LORD is speaking of generations, Him being w/ them from the beginning to the last. When you read the entire chapter, you'll notice it's about the LORD giving encouragement to Israel...

"Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he." Isaiah 14:4 ...

"But thou, Israel, art my servant, Jacob whom I have chosen, the seed of Abraham my friend... For I the LORD thy God will hold thy right hand, saying unto thee, Fear not; I will help thee. Fear not, thou worm Jacob, and ye men of Israel; I will help thee, saith the LORD, and thy redeemer, the Holy One of Israel." Isaiah 41:8; 13-14

Israel is God's son, even His firstborn (i.e. Exodus 4:22). Protecting your child, of course, is what any Father would want to do, right?
No confusion on God, or 101G part, because the "WITH the LAST" is clearly explained in the Brown-Driver-Briggs dictionary on the term "LAST" in the verse. listen, b. of time, latter or last (according to context) Exodus 4:8; Deuteronomy 24:3; 2 Samuel 19:12; Isaiah 8:23, of God Isaiah 44:6 ("" רִאשׁוֺן) Isaiah 48:12 (do.) compare Isaiah 41:4; in Genl. subsequent (vaguely), ׳יוֺם א = time to come Isaiah 30:8; Proverbs 31:25 (but Nehemiah 8:18 הַיוֺם ׳הָאַ = the last day), ׳(הָ)אַ (הַ)דּוֺר the following Generation Deuteronomy 29:21; Psalm 48:14; Psalm 78:4; Psalm 78:6; Psalm 102:19, (הָ)אַחֲרֹנִים they that come after Job 18:20 (Ges Schl) Ecclesiastes 1:11; Ecclesiastes 4:16, but Isaiah 41:4 the last,

this definition can be found at bible hub, https://biblehub.com/hebrew/314.htm

NOW THAT WE HAVE A CLEAR UNDERSTANDING, THE "LORD", ALL CAPS IS THE FIRST AND THE LAST THE SAME ONE PERSON. again, Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." so, in Isaiah 48:12 the "LORD" all caps is the FIRST and "ALSO" the LAST. for the definition, "Also", means .... having no one else present. READ THAT DEFINITION once more. again is this the same ONE PERSON, the First and the Last, that the first was with the Last, for the term "WITH" indicate the SAME ONE PERSON? yes, or no. you need to now recalibrate, because the LAST is the LORD and not the last Generation....... so, again, 101G ask is this not the same one person, yes or no? .... think/reason before you answer.

101G.
 
Answer to Q #3: It was a joint effort involving the eternal Godhead, & not just God the Father & God the Son (i.e. Father, Son, Holy Spirit in unison), working together, acting as one; collectively. Did you know the following about the Holy Ghost/Spirit?

He's a Comforter: "But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you." John 14:26

He speaks: "Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come." John 16:13

"As they ministered to the Lord, and fasted, the Holy Ghost said, Separate me Barnabas and Saul for the work whereunto I have called them... So they, being sent forth by the Holy Ghost, departed unto Seleucia; and from thence they sailed to Cyprus." Acts 13:2; 4

He could be grieved: "And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption." Ephesians 4:30

He could be quenched: "Quench not the Spirit." 1 Thessalonians 5:19

He could be LIED to: "But Peter said, Ananias, why hath Satan filled thine heart to lie to the Holy Ghost, and to keep back part of the price of the land? Whiles it remained, was it not thine own? and after it was sold, was it not in thine own power? why hast thou conceived this thing in thine heart? thou hast not lied unto men, but unto God." Acts 5:3-4

Lastly, He raised Jesus up as well: "And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness. But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you." Romans 8:10-11

Understanding the Godhead is complex, I know. It takes a lot of studying & allowing God Himself to teach us... not scholars, not men. It's about a personal relationship w/ God. It requires faith (i.e. Romans 10:17), for it's impossible to please Him w/out faith (i.e. Hebrews 11:6). Hope this helps! 🙂
First, from question answer on 1 and 2 there is no separate and distinct persons called Father so, and Holy Ghost. it's only "ONE PERSON" who holds all three .... "TITLES". titles are not persons, ok, but persons hold titles.

Second, you said, "He's a Comforter: "But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you." John 14:26"
CORRECT... "HE" ONE PERSON is the Holy Ghost/Spirit, who is the Lord Jesus. LISTEN CAREFULLY. 1 John 2:1 "My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:"
this term "advocate" destroys your three person Godhead.... and here's why. for the GREEK TERM, is
G3875 παράκλητος parakletos (pa-ra'-klee-tos) n.
1. (properly) one called near (to give help).
2. an intercessor (one who entreats of behalf of another).
3. a comforter.
[(not given)]
KJV: advocate, comforter
Root(s): G3844, G2822
See also: G3874

WHO is the " intercessor?". let's see by scriptures, Romans 8:26 "Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered." the Spirit who make intercession for us is the Lord JESUS.

and 101G is sure you KNOW who is the "COMFORTER"..... again,the Lord JESUS. yes, the Lord Jesus is the Holy Spirit the Comforter....
do you agree, YES or NO? Think before you answer, REASON IT OUT ....... before you answer.

101G.
 
There are many verses that refers Jesus as God, other that John 1:18, John 1:1, 1Tim 3:16 and many others.
Jesus as "God was manifest in the flesh," See it in Greek below;

(KJV) 1Ti 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

(KJV+) 1Ti 3:16 AndG2532 without controversyG3672 greatG3173 isG2076 theG3588 mysteryG3466 of godliness:G2150
GodG2316 was manifestG5319 inG1722 the flesh,G4561 justifiedG1344 inG1722 the Spirit,G4151 seenG3700 of angels,G32 preachedG2784 untoG1722 the Gentiles,G1484 believed onG4100 inG1722 the world,G2889 received upG353 intoG1722 glory.G1391

(Greek NT Byzantine+) 1Ti 3:16 καιG2532 CONJ ομολογουμενωςG3672 ADV μεγαG3173 A-NSN εστινG1510 V-PAI-3S τοG3588 T-NSN τηςG3588 T-GSF ευσεβειαςG2150 N-GSF μυστηριονG3466 N-NSN
θεοςG2316 N-NSM εφανερωθηG5319 V-API-3S ενG1722 PREP σαρκιG4561 N-DSF εδικαιωθηG1344 V-API-3S ενG1722 PREP πνευματιG4151 N-DSN ωφθηG3708 V-API-3S αγγελοιςG32 N-DPM εκηρυχθηG2784 V-API-3S ενG1722 PREP εθνεσινG1484 N-DPN επιστευθηG4100 V-API-3S ενG1722 PREP κοσμωG2889 N-DSM ανεληφθηG353 V-API-3S ενG1722 PREP δοξηG1391 N-DSF

Arians always argue about Jesus nature, while we believe that;
1. There in only one God,
2. We also believe that Jesus is man,
3. What we need from them is to cite just a single verse that say "Jesus is not God."
4. I believe that would settle everything.
That doesn't answer my question at all. Let's try this.

For example, Jesus is not equal to God according to the Bible:

Psalm 8
4What is man that You think of him,
And a son of man that You are concerned about him?
5Yet You have made him a little lower than God,
And You crown him with glory and majesty!
6You have him rule over the works of Your hands;
You have put everything under his feet,

Now how do you come up with Jesus being equal to God?
 
The KJV is good, one of my favorites, but it has errors. You mentioned 1 John 5:7 which is one of the errors of the KJV. There are more. It's beneficial to be aware of these things and nod to them without throwing the baby out with the bathwater, so to speak. The KJV also doesn't contain the "Granville Sharp rule" and contains several instances where Jesus is clearly said to be created or not God. Later translations, especially those produced after the late 18th and 19th century, is when the big changes started to occur that your video talks about. You seem open to understanding this.
 
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You seek for the word "Trinity," same of me of the word "Bible" in the Bible not scrolls or scripts.
Any verse?

I've just quoted literal word for word Bible translations that aims to maintain the highest degree of accuracy to the original languages, and Greek by Westcott and Hort, supported by the oldest manuscripts, the papyrus 66 and papyrus 75. There are various readings but were not described as the original wordings.

Yes, also Arians tried to change Bible wordings just to align with their beliefs, and heavy reliance to paraphrase translations.
A product from the translators thoughts not from the original Bible words.

(NAS95) John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

(NAS95+) John 1:18 R1NoG3762 oneG3762 has seenG3708 GodG2316 at anyG4455 timeG4455; R2the onlyG3439 begottenG3439 GodG2316 who is R3in the bosomG2859 of the FatherG3962, R4He has explainedG1834 Him.

(Greek NT Westcott and Hort+) John 1:18 θεονG2316 N-ASM ουδειςG3762 A-NSM-N εωρακενG3708 V-RAI-3S-ATT πωποτεG4455 ADV μονογενηςG3439 A-NSM θεοςG2316 N-NSM οG3588 T-NSM ωνG1510 V-PAP-NSM ειςG1519 PREP τονG3588 T-ASM κολπονG2859 N-ASM τουG3588 T-GSM πατροςG3962 N-GSM εκεινοςG1565 D-NSM εξηγησατοG1834 V-ADI-3S
In biblical research and in any other reasonable study. If we have 10 clear verses on a subject and 1 verse that does not fit with the other 10 verses on the same subject. We are not to disregard the 10 clear verses and hold on to the 1 verse and then say we have proof that the 1 verse is well documented. Baptizing in the name of the father, son, and spirit is not taught or practiced anywhere in the book of Acts or in any other part of the New Testament. Nobody carried out such a request that you say came from Jesus. Nobody.
 
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In biblical research and in any other reasonable study. If we have 10 clear verses on a subject and 1 verse that does not fit with the other 10 verses on the same subject. We are not to disregard the 10 clear verses and hold on to the 1 verse and then say we have proof that the 1 verse is well documented. Baptizing in the name of the father, son, and spirit is not taught or practiced anywhere in the book of Acts or in any other part of the New Testament. Nobody carried out such a request that you say came from Jesus. Nobody.
What you're describing refers to a statistical anomaly known as an outlier. Outliers never inform the majority. There is a reason why the outlier exists. It doesn't mean it's wrong and it doesn't mean the majority is wrong. There is no contradiction to a rule, it's just that outliers are explained by the circumstances.

However, what the Trinitarians are unable to explain is why, if Jesus provided a baptismal formula, why no one followed it. I don't recall any of them having attempted to explain this.
 
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