Where's the wrath??

Yes which makes PSA the newest theory in church history null and void.
Incorrect--

Penal Substitutionary Atonement (PSA) is not the newest theory of atonement but is one of several historical theories developed over the centuries. Here's a brief overview of PSA in the context of other atonement theories and its development:

Historical Theories of Atonement
Christus Victor (Early Church)

This is one of the earliest views of atonement, emphasized by Church Fathers like Irenaeus (c. 130-202 AD). It focuses on Christ's victory over the powers of sin, death, and the devil.
Ransom Theory (Early Church)

Also prominent in early Christianity, this theory suggests that Christ’s death was a ransom paid to Satan to release humanity from bondage. Origen (c. 184-253 AD) and Gregory of Nyssa (c. 335-395 AD) were proponents of this view.
Moral Influence Theory (Early Church and Medieval Period)

This theory, advanced by figures like Peter Abelard (1079-1142), posits that Christ’s death was primarily a demonstration of God’s love intended to inspire a moral transformation in humanity.
Satisfaction Theory (Medieval Period)

Anselm of Canterbury (1033-1109) developed this theory, arguing that Christ’s death satisfied the demands of God's honor, which had been offended by human sin.

Development of Penal Substitutionary Atonement

Penal Substitutionary Atonement (Reformation Period)

PSA was articulated and refined during the Protestant Reformation in the 16th century, notably by Reformers such as Martin Luther (1483-1546) and John Calvin (1509-1564). They built on Anselm’s Satisfaction Theory but placed greater emphasis on the legal aspects of Christ’s atonement, interpreting it as Christ bearing the punishment due for sin in place of sinners.

More Recent Theories
Governmental Theory (17th Century)

Hugo Grotius (1583-1645) proposed this theory, which posits that Christ’s death demonstrates God’s justice and serves as a public example, thereby upholding the moral order without necessitating a strict penal substitution.
Scapegoat Theory (20th Century)

René Girard (1923-2015) introduced this theory, suggesting that Jesus’ death exposes and subverts the mechanism of scapegoating and human violence.

Conclusion
While PSA is a relatively later development compared to Christus Victor and Ransom theories, it is not the newest theory. It emerged prominently during the Reformation and has been a central doctrine in many Protestant traditions since the 16th century. Theories such as the Governmental Theory and the Scapegoat Theory developed after PSA, with the latter being a contemporary approach to understanding the atonement.

Each of these theories offers a different perspective on the significance of Christ's death and resurrection, reflecting the evolving understanding of atonement throughout Christian history.
 
Where is the wrath?

Nowhere in the bible is it mentioned that God the Father poured wrath out upon His own Son that He sent to save us?

Surely, something as important as that would be the central theme expounded upon by the NT authors.

So where is it taught by any NT writer?

To put things into perspective from the KJV.
The word punish is used one time in the NT. (Acts 4:21)
The word punished is used four times in the NT. (Acts 22:5, Acts 26:11, 2Th 1:9, 2Pe 2:9)
The word punishment is used four times in the NT. (Matt 25:46, 2Cor 2:6, Heb 10:29, 1 Pe 2:14)
The word wrath is used 38 times in the NT

Of all these instances, not one time are any of these words used towards our Lord not once.

What about purgatory. Is it a truthful doctrine? Nothing is mentioned about purgatory and yet it is believed by many people.

No matter your belief, the bible is the baseline for doctrine. If it is not in it, then don't believe it.

Jesus never suffered the wrath of God. You cannot find it stated, implied, or taught by any NT author, and the Apostle Paul is very concise and clear in his letters.

Just like purgatory is an erroneous doctrine fashioned by the uninspired thoughts of man, so too is the doctrine of PSA and God pouring wrath out upon His Son.

If you disagree, then the onus is upon you to use the bible in context and prove it.

What you will find is the purpose of His death and resurrection, and none of it had to do with God killing His Son to appease His anger for our sins.

Think about it just a minute. Would you being angry at someone to the point of killing them take that anger out on your own son who always did you right and kill him instead, so you could feel better about the person who made you angry? I certainly hope not! What kind of person does that? More importantly, what kind of message does that speak about God if we think He did that?...And most importantly, this is never mentioned in the bible!

We are saved because God loves us and shown us mercy. No wrath required to love us and save us.

God Bless
Its really just apples for oranges, Jesus satisfied the Justice of God for them He represented, and so they are by His Satisfaction delivered from wrath that was their Just due. All the rest of mankind faces His Wrath for their sins.

Jesus delivered the elect from wrath to come 1 Thess 1:10

And to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead, even Jesus, which delivered us from the wrath to come.

Rom 5:9

Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.
 
Its really just apples for oranges, Jesus satisfied the Justice of God for them He represented, and so they are by His Satisfaction delivered from wrath that was their Just due. All the rest of mankind faces His Wrath for their sins.

Jesus delivered the elect from wrath to come 1 Thess 1:10

And to wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the dead, even Jesus, which delivered us from the wrath to come.

Rom 5:9

Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.
Um the issue is: Is Jesus the object of God's wrath
 
As it stands written in Scriptures Isa 53.
Amen the point is Christ appeased, propitiated Gods Wrath for them He died for, Who can deny that ? Who can deny He was the object of Justice, and we know He has wrath against sin and the non elect, the children of disobedience Col 3 :5-6

5 Mortify therefore your members which are upon the earth; fornication, uncleanness, inordinate affection, evil concupiscence, and covetousness, which is idolatry:

6 For which things' sake the wrath of God cometh on the children of disobedience:
 
As it stands written in Scriptures Isa 53.
Sorry there is nothing in Isa 53 about Christ being the object upon which God exhausts his wrath

That God is propitiated by exhausting his wake upon him and as a result of imputation of sin upon Christ God turns his back on him
 
Amen the point is Christ appeased, propitiated Gods Wrath for them He died for, Who can deny that ? Who can deny He was the object of Justice, and we know He has wrath against sin and the non elect, the children of disobedience Col 3 :5-6

5 Mortify therefore your members which are upon the earth; fornication, uncleanness, inordinate affection, evil concupiscence, and covetousness, which is idolatry:

6 For which things' sake the wrath of God cometh on the children of disobedience:
Um that appears nowhere in Isa 53 or anywhere in scripture
 
PSA holds Jesus was the object of god's wrath

So in any question regarding PSA it has to be addressed
I think He was an object of Gods Justice which appeased Gods Wrath for the Elect. Now the inference is there that for Justice sake He bore the wrath for sin the elect would have otherwise been under like the non elect are for sin Col 3:5-6

5 Mortify therefore your members which are upon the earth; fornication, uncleanness, inordinate affection, evil concupiscence, and covetousness, which is idolatry:

6 For which things' sake the wrath of God cometh on the children of disobedience:

Jn 3:36

36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.

I dont believe its an issue to break felllowship over though. Its not a false gospel issue imo
 
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