Doug Brents
Active Member
Yes, Heb is quoting Psalms, and that proves that Jesus, the Son, is in fact God. He is not "Using" God's throne, it is His OWN throne.Hebrews is saying your throne oh God is forever. Not Jesus is forever. In Hebrews it's quoted referring to Jesus having the use of that throne.
Hebrews 1:8
But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
Psalms 45:6
Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre.
“Your throne is God.” Hebrews 1:8 is an almost exact quotation from the Septuagint version of Psalm 45:6, which itself was a very good translation of the Hebrew text of Psalm 45:6, and Hebrews 1:9 is from the Septuagint of Psalm 45:7. The theme of Hebrews 1 centers around the Father’s rule and elevation of the Son over the rest of creation. God spoke through the prophets, and then through His Son, who He appointed heir of all things and who is now seated at God’s right hand as second in command under God.
Jesus always was over all creation, because all of creation came through Him. None of the other prophets, or even angels, was called His Son. To whom is due worship other than God? Yet God commands us, and the angels, to worship the Son Jesus.
So you are saying that the meaning of a prophecy cannot change? It cannot be reapplied? It cannot be clarified to give greater understanding? That is complete nonsense!The God of the Son—anointed him and set him above his companions, such that the Son now sits on God’s right hand. Hebrews exalts the Son, and in so doing exalts the Father. But in contrast to what Trinitarians say, Hebrews 1:8 (and thus Psalm 45:6) does not call Jesus “God” and does not support the Trinity. To see that fully, one must study Psalm 45. Upon examination, Psalm 45 does not support the Trinity, so when it is quoted in Hebrews 1:8 then that quotation does not support the Trinity either. The Jews read Psalm 45 for centuries and never concluded that the Messiah would be “God in the flesh” or somehow be part of a Triune God.
Consider the prophecy given in Hosea 11:1. When Hosea spoke these words, he was speaking of Israel being called out of Egypt in the Exodus. But when Matthew speaks these words, he is speaking of Jesus being called out of Egypt after the death of Herod. Does Matthew's reapplication of this prophecy negate Hosea's? No. But it does give greater insight into what the passage means. This is the same that we get from Heb 1:8 reinterpreting the meaning of Psalm 45. It gives us greater insight into what God is telling us.