The Trinity study ,plural references to God in the Old Testament:Plural nouns, pronouns, verbs, adverbs

1John 1:1-3 refers to the Word as a thing. Eternal life isn't a person. Do you see it? I'll even highlight it for you.

The Word is eternal life, eternal life is a thing, and it was revealed to the disciples, i.e., Jesus told them the way to eternal life. Explicitly says of the Word/eternal life that it's a that, which, this, what, and it. Means the Word isn't a person.

1 John 1
1That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our own eyes, which we have gazed upon and touched with our own hands—this is the Word of life. 2And this is the life that was revealed; we have seen it and testified to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life that was with the Father and was revealed to us.

3We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us. And this fellowship of ours is with the Father and with His Son, Jesus Christ.
Again, Bible Scholars understand how Greek-styled neuter pronouns are used in the Bible. They understand that they can refer to an abstracted or collective reality, which doesn't always make the reality an inanimate thing. Perfect example is John 3:6: “That which is born of the Spirit is spirit.” We can all agree that a thing is not born of Spirit, people are. Right?
 
Don't get into the same pickle @mikesw did. There are no examples of Jesus in the Old Testament pre-existing. Show where he's at then clearly and explicitly.
Crack open your Old Testament and you will notice that it portrays the Word of the Lord not as an impersonal utterance but as a communicator exhibiting full personal traits—initiative, intentionality, and authority. The repeated prophetic formula “the Word of the Lord came to…” (Jer 1:4; Ezek 1:3; Hos 1:1) presents the Word as an acting subject that initiates contact, addresses specific individuals, and delivers intelligible speech. The Word confronts, instructs, and commissions the prophets, distinguishing itself from their own thoughts or reflections. Such consistent depiction of the Word as one who comes, speaks, and addresses persons demonstrates individual agency and personal interaction rather than abstract divine information.
 
Yes, all things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made = by God's speech.

Yes, God's word was with him just as your word is with you.....your word is not with someone else.
It could be.

Everyday there is a press conference on TV and if you ever watch the press secretary speak and answer questions they always talk with the authority that the President has given them with what to say. Not only are they separate people, they usually are not even in the same room as the President.

The same could well be said of any interpreter who is translating one language into another when foreign dignitaries are exchanging ideas.

The same also can be said for your spouse and you who are 2 individuals but one flesh... Gen 2:24, Matt 19:5, Mark 10:8, Eph 5:31 when each of you have the legal authority to speak for the other...

You word can very definitely be with someone else.
 
The nature that everyone thinks about when conversing about human nature. How many human natures do humans have?
<snip>
Jesus is a human being, therefore has a human nature.
He is the anointed of God, Jesus Christ, the Son of God who displays the characteristics of God NOT GOD'S INHERENT, INNATE ATTRIBUTES [omni's, invisibility, immortality (he was given immortality)] but God's characteristics of righteousness, justice, holiness, kindness, love, grace, merciful, faithfulness, truthfulness, etc.
You just contradicted RM who claimed that Jesus has "the nature of God". Well done.
I guess you just cannot give me your definition of nature?

If you mean by the 'the nature of God' the characteristics of God - Jesus does share these characteristics but if you mean by 'the nature of God', the innate inherent attributes of God - Jesus does not have.
I doubt that I have contradicted RM with what I have said....... instead of an accusation toward me ask him.

cc: @Runningman
 
It could be.

Everyday there is a press conference on TV and if you ever watch the press secretary speak and answer questions they always talk with the authority that the President has given them with what to say. Not only are they separate people, they usually are not even in the same room as the President.

The same could well be said of any interpreter who is translating one language into another when foreign dignitaries are exchanging ideas.

The same also can be said for your spouse and you who are 2 individuals but one flesh... Gen 2:24, Matt 19:5, Mark 10:8, Eph 5:31 when each of you have the legal authority to speak for the other...

You word can very definitely be with someone else.
The press secretary speaks what she has been authorized by the President to speak on his behalf. The words began in the mind of the President - He planned what would be said, what could be said so the words were with the President before the press secretary received and spoke on behalf of the President.

Any interpreter who is translating for foreign dignitaries has been given authority to speak on behalf of said dignitaries. What the dignitaries decide to say originates from each one who speaks - therefore their word is with them before they speak.

In my relationship with my husband, yes, he can speak for me but usually he consults me first and what he says will echo the words I have authorized him to say --- the same goes for me when speaking for him.

My words originate in my mind, my thoughts then I speak, so my words are with me.
I would think that everyone's words are with them before they are said ........ although sometimes we do speak before we think which more often than not doesn't end very well!
 
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