brightfame52
Active Member
Okay none of that world is condemned it's justified1John 2:2He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
Doug
Okay none of that world is condemned it's justified1John 2:2He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
Doug
Not until it believes…Okay none of that world is condemned it's justified
Amen.Not until it believes…
Doug
No at the moment Christ became its propitiation, God was satisfied and their sins all forgiven. When did Christ become a propitiation for their sins before Gods law and Justice ?Not until it believes…
Doug
There is, in Reform thought, no real purpose or power in faith, because the real point of reckoning lies with election, not belief. Belief becomes a mere aspect of necessity, like buttoning your shirt before you put a tie on.Amen.
The irony is some of the reformed people give faith lip service. The just shall life by faith. Without faith its impossible to please God, faith comes by hearing and hearing by the words of Christ ( the gospel ). Believe in the Lord Jesus and you shall be saved. And there are dozens upon dozens of other passages. Some might as well rip Hebrews 11 out of their bibles since they really don't believe it.
Propitiating allows for forgiveness to be given, it does not give it! Forgiveness follows repentance and confession of sin by the sinner. “Repent and be baptized for the forgiveness of sins.” Which comes first, repentance or forgiveness?No at the moment Christ became its propitiation, God was satisfied and their sins all forgiven. When did Christ become a propitiation for their sins before Gods law and Justice ?
Propitiation is another facet of salvation. Once God has been propitiated for ones sins, they are reconciled to God, Justified before God, forgiven by God, at peace with God, not condemned by God. If you deny this, frankly you deny Christ ! Isa 53:10-11Propitiating allows for forgiveness to be given, it does not give it! Forgiveness follows repentance and confession of sin by the sinner. “Repent and be baptized for the forgiveness of sins.” Which comes first, repentance or forgiveness?
Doug
Acts 2:37When the people heard this, they were cut to the heart and said to Peter and the other apostles, “Brothers, what shall we do?”Propitiation is another facet of salvation. Once God has been propitiated for ones sins, they are reconciled to God, Justified before God, forgiven by God, at peace with God, not condemned by God. If you deny this, frankly you deny Christ ! Isa 53:10-11
10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.
11 He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.
12 Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.
He Intercedes for the transgressors He bare their sins for, so all unbelievers He died for Christ intercedes for, so to say He is not their propitiation until they believe is disproved in this scripture, and they are already Justified.
okay doesnt change a thing said. Those folks sins had been propitiated for.Acts 2:37When the people heard this, they were cut to the heart and said to Peter and the other apostles, “Brothers, what shall we do?”
38Peter replied, “Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
Forgiveness and receiving the Holy Spirit are contingent on repentance and baptism. The language and syntax are irrefutable.
(Incidentally, receiving the Spirit is the point of being born again, so repentance is a prerequisite to being born again.)
Doug
All sin has been propitiated for; whether we believe that or not is the question.okay doesnt change a thing said. Those folks sins had been propitiated for.
No it hasn't, if that was true, none could die in their sins under the wrath of God.All sin has been propitiated for; whether we believe that or not is the question.
Doug
Hilasmós means to appease the anger, the effect of which is that the justice of God is satisfied and God can now show mercy to whoever trusts in that act of appeasing, whoever believes that it was for their personal sins.No it hasn't, if that was true, none could die in their sins under the wrath of God.
The propitiation is limited to the saved from their sins and wrath Rom 5:9Hilasmós means to appease the anger, the effect of which is that the justice of God is satisfied and God can now show mercy to whoever trusts in that act of appeasing, whoever believes that it was for their personal sins.
Hilasmós is the means to forgiveness, not forgiveness itself. God could not forgive without Christ satisfying the legal requirements of justice on behalf of mankind.
Every sin (outside of blasphemy against the Holy Spirit) is forgivable because every sin is atoned for by Christ’s blood! That is the good news! That is why I preach! There is no gospel otherwise! All we have to do is believe in it.
Doug
Hilasmós is the means to forgiveness,
Thayer12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
In the Death of Death in the Death of Christ (1647), John Owen offers a famous argument for a limited atonement. This argument appears at the end of Book IAll sin has been propitiated for; whether we believe that or not is the question.
So Doug, which one are you going to chose and support it with scriptures?To which I may add this dilemma to our Universalists:—
God imposed his wrath due unto, and Christ underwent the pains of hellfire for, either
(1) all the sins of all men, or
(2) all the sins of some men, or
(3) some sins of all men.
If the last, some sins of all men, then have all men some sins to answer for, and so shall no man be saved; for if God enter into judgment with us, though it were with all mankind for one sin, no flesh should be justified in his sight: “If the Lord should mark iniquities, who should stand?” (Ps. cxxx. 3). We might all go to cast all that we have “to the moles and to the bats, to go into the clefts of the rocks, and into the tops of the ragged rocks, for fear of the Lord, and for the glory of his majesty,” (Isa. ii. 20, 21).
If the second, that is it which we affirm, that Christ in their stead and room suffered for all the sins of all the elect in the world.
If the first, why, then, are not all freed from the punishment of all their sins? You will say, “Because of their unbelief; they will not believe.” But this unbelief, is it a sin or not? If not, why should they be punished for it? If it be, then Christ underwent the punishment due to it, or not. If so, then why must that hinder them more than their other sins for which he died from partaking of the fruit of his death? If he did not, then did he not die for all their sins. Let them choose which part they will.