Mark 16:16~"He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.

Let's look at the whole verse. "Beloved, now we are children of God, and it has not appeared as yet what we will be. We know that when He appears, we will be like Him, because we will see Him just as He is." We do not yet know what we will be, but we will be like Him, not He like us. God is Spirit (John 4:24), and if we are like Him, then we also will be spirit.

You are inserting "physical" into the passage. You are assuming that all "bodies" must be physical. But the angels have a body, and they are spiritual beings, not physical, although they can manifest as physical in many forms if they choose to.

They saw Him go up into the clouds, they did not see Him go into Heaven. And you can see spirits. Angels appeared to many people in the OT, the fourth man in the fire was an angel, the fires that consumed some of Job's children was an angel, the wind that killed others was an angel, all of the angels, Jesus, the Father, etc. in Revelation were spirits and John saw them.

Do you know that his body went to Heaven? Or do you just assume so? His body was never found or buried, but that doesn't mean that it wasn't burned up in the fire of the chariot leaving only his soul to enter Heaven. No, I don't know for sure either, but there is plenty of evidence elsewhere in Scripture that makes me believe that the bodies we have in Heaven will be spiritual bodies, not physical.

You are correct, I did not post many passages on this in previous comments. I have above. I made many references to Scriptures in those comments, but I don't guess they were clear enough for you to know which ones I was thinking of. But I have given references here, so I hope this clarifies what I believe.
Doug, this is very good, I highlighted what I thought was excellent, which I believe as well.

In the glorified body Jesus had after his resurrection, that body had power to appear and disappear at will!

So, when Jesus went up in his glorified body, and once the clouds received him he disappeared and immediately appeared in glory.

The fourth man in the burning furnace was indeed an angel, not Jesus, as most believe.

Daniel 3:28~"Then Nebuchadnezzar spake, and said, Blessed be the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, who hath sent his angel, and delivered his servants that trusted in him, and have changed the king's word, and yielded their bodies, that they might not serve nor worship any god, except their own God."
 
Doug, this is very good, I highlighted what I thought was excellent, which I believe as well.

In the glorified body Jesus had after his resurrection, that body had power to appear and disappear at will!

So, when Jesus went up in his glorified body, and once the clouds received him he disappeared and immediately appeared in glory.

The fourth man in the burning furnace was indeed an angel, not Jesus, as most believe.

Daniel 3:28~"Then Nebuchadnezzar spake, and said, Blessed be the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, who hath sent his angel, and delivered his servants that trusted in him, and have changed the king's word, and yielded their bodies, that they might not serve nor worship any god, except their own God."
Thank you. I know that many believe in what they call "Christophanies", but I don't believe that Jesus Himself came down at any time other than when He was born of Mary and lived as a man for around 33 years.
 
This is both the Son and a human being, being full of the Spirit (having emptied Himself to become a human).

I may be wrong, but I do not believe that He still has a physical body in Heaven. He had a physical body while on Earth, but when He ascended back into Heaven He went back to being Spirit only. And His Spirit is omnipresent.
Col 2:9 was written present tense after the resurrection. It says all of God dwells in Jesus bodily.
You said something much different in your answer.
This is because you want to somehow make it fit your beliefs.
 
If every bit of the godhead dwells inside, Jesus, as scripture says, Jesus must be bodily omnipresent. If not, we don’t agree with the scripture at all. We modify it to fit our beliefs.
 

What Language Did Jesus Speak? (Inquiring minds want to know)​

Jesus and everyone he was surrounded by spoke Greek as their first language. The Jews had been in captivity by various world powers for hundreds of years at the time the New Testament was written. People learn the language of their captors…or else….. That’s a given.
 
Jesus and everyone he was surrounded by spoke Greek as their first language.
Incorrect... Hebrew was likely spoken and read in the synagogues, so most people were likely capable of speaking and understanding some Hebrew. Aramaic was the "everyday" language of conversation and commerce among Jews like Jesus and his followers
 

Did Jesus Speak Greek?​

Jesus probably knew enough Greek to understand it. But he wouldn’t have spoken it as his first language. He also wouldn’t have used it in his daily conversation or taught the crowds in Greek.

 
Incorrect... Hebrew was likely spoken and read in the synagogues, so most people were likely capable of speaking and understanding some Hebrew. Aramaic was the "everyday" language of conversation and commerce among Jews like Jesus and his followers
Did Pilate debate with and discuss the trial with the thousands of Jews during the trial of Jesus in Hebrew?

Was Peter in Acts 2 speaking in all of the languages of the Jews in their language or did he speak Greek to them?
 
What language did Jesus speak? We must say he spoke Hebrews, for so did Paul mainly, and others as well, yet we also know that it was not the same of those of Jerusalem, but very, very silamar. Consider:

Matthew 26:73...................and said to Peter, surely thou also art one of them, for thy speech
betrayeth thee
:

Not his spiritual speech, for he had not been speaking in the language of a disciple of Christ, like one that had been with Jesus; nor his swearing neither, for this rather showed him to be one of them; but his country language, the brogue of his speech, the Galilean dialect which he spoke: for in Mark it is said, "thou art a Galilean, and thy speech agreeth thereunto", ( Mark 14:70 ) : for though the same language was spoken in Galilee as at Jerusalem, yet it was not so accurate and polite in Galilee, nor so well pronounced; words of different signification were confounded together.

I would think since Israel as a nation had been being taken captive and scattered among many countries during their history, pickup up several different dialects, and pieces of language from from other nations. I believe it can safely be said that the language of Jesus and his disciple included some Aramaic mixed in with Hebrews, and maybe Jerusalem was more pure form of Hebrews. I also would think, yet do not know that both Hebrew and Aramaic are very silamar and could easily be used together with a little difficulty, I'm just assuming this, I truly do not know.

Maybe their Aramaic was most likely a Galilean accent distinct from that of Jerusalem. Jesus spent most of his time in the communities of Nazareth and Capernaum in Galilee, which were Aramaic-speaking villages. The Gospels support this view showing Jesus using various Aramaic terms: talitha koum (Mark 5:41); ephphatha (Mark 7:34); eloi eloi lama sabachthani (Matthew 27:46; Mark 15:34); abba (Mark 14:36). Aramaic was very similar to Hebrew, but with many terms and expressions that were acquired from other languages and cultures, notably Babylonian.

My two cent worth.
 
Col 2:9 was written present tense after the resurrection. It says all of God dwells in Jesus bodily.
You said something much different in your answer.
This is because you want to somehow make it fit your beliefs.
Not at all, I simply understand that there are different kinds of bodies. Paul does not say what type of body Christ has; it could be physical (as you think), spiritual (as I think), or some new kind of which we have no knowledge yet. As I mentioned before, our physical body is the seed from which our resurrected body will form, and the new body will be nothing like the old (1 Cor 15 ff).
 
Prove it.
Let's start here:

Little children know David killed Goliath. But most Bible versions say Elhanan killed Goliath. What does your Bible say? Which Bible has it right?​

The NIV says Elhanan killed Goliath.​

“In another battle with the Philistines at Gob, Elhanan son of Jaare-Oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite, who had a spear with a shaft like a weaver’s rod” (II Sam 21:19).

The NASV says Elhanan killed Goliath.​

“And there was war with the Philistines again at Gob, and Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver’s beam” (II Sam 21:19).

The ESV says Elhanan killed Goliath.​

“And there was again war with the Philistines at Gob, and Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim, the Bethlehemite, struck down Goliath the Gittite, the shaft of whose spear was like a weaver’s beam” (II Sam 21:19).
Try other versions – Elhanan killed Goliath. Even try the Masoretic Hebrew text – Elhanan again. But they are wrong, for we know David killed Goliath, and Elhanan killed Goliath’s brother Lahmi (I Sam 17:50-51; I Chr 20:5).

Why do modern Bibles have such an obvious error? Translators love money more than God, so they copy each other’s errors to protect their jobs and keep new versions coming every year.

This verse was correctly translated 400 years ago in the King James Version, but today’s translators would have to get a real job, if they endorsed the KJV.

Here is the King James Version:​

“And there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver’s beam” (II Sam 21:19).
The Lord blinded modern translators to expose their ignorance (I Cor 1:19-20; 3:19-20). And He providentially guided the KJV translators to give us this verse correctly, without errors or confusion. The KJV is consistent: David killed Goliath, and Elhanan killed Goliath’s brother Lahmi.

Peter said Scripture is “more sure” than God’s voice from heaven (II Pet 1:16-21), and this more sure Word of God is the King James Version. The versions with Elhanan killing Goliath in II Sam 21:19 are surely wrong!

Jesus said, “Scripture cannot be broken” (John 10:35). If your Bible was broken by this simple question about David and Goliath, you need to get rid of it, for the Lord has shown you that it is not Scripture.

Who killed Goliath in your Bible?
 
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Let's start here:

Little children know David killed Goliath. But most Bible versions say Elhanan killed Goliath. What does your Bible say? Which Bible has it right?​

The NIV says Elhanan killed Goliath.​


The NASV says Elhanan killed Goliath.​


The ESV says Elhanan killed Goliath.​


Try other versions – Elhanan killed Goliath. Even try the Masoretic Hebrew text – Elhanan again. But they are wrong, for we know David killed Goliath, and Elhanan killed Goliath’s brother Lahmi (I Sam 17:50-51; I Chr 20:5).
Why do modern Bibles have such an obvious error? Translators love money more than God, so they copy each other’s errors to protect their jobs and keep new versions coming every year. This verse was correctly translated 400 years ago in the King James Version, but today’s translators would have to get a real job, if they endorsed the KJV.

Here is the King James Version:​


The Lord blinded modern translators to expose their ignorance (I Cor 1:19-20; 3:19-20). And He providentially guided the KJV translators to give us this verse correctly, without errors or confusion. The KJV is consistent: David killed Goliath, and Elhanan killed Goliath’s brother Lahmi.

Peter said Scripture is “more sure” than God’s voice from heaven (II Pet 1:16-21), and this more sure Word of God is the King James Version. The versions with Elhanan killing Goliath in II Sam 21:19 are surely wrong!

Jesus said, “Scripture cannot be broken” (John 10:35). If your Bible was broken by this simple question about David and Goliath, you need to get rid of it, for the Lord has shown you that it is not Scripture.

Who killed Goliath in your Bible?
Red, we know that David killed Goliath (he removed his head), and the events in 2 Sam 21 occur many years later (David had no servants when he killed Goliath, but in 2 Sam 21 he had many). We also have confirmation in 1 Chr 20:5 that it was Lahmi, the brother of Goliath that was killed by Elhanan. But all this does not make the KJV the only honest and true translation of Scripture. One example of the KJV's translators dishonesty was their transliteration of the Greek word "baptizo" into "baptize", instead of translating it to "immerse". There are errors, omissions, additions, and other problems with the translation of every version of the Scriptures. The best option is to study several translations, with reference to the original language, so that the personal bias of the translators is mitigated as best as may be.
 
Not at all, I simply understand that there are different kinds of bodies. Paul does not say what type of body Christ has; it could be physical (as you think), spiritual (as I think), or some new kind of which we have no knowledge yet. As I mentioned before, our physical body is the seed from which our resurrected body will form, and the new body will be nothing like the old (1 Cor 15 ff).
Paul knows that Jesus has a celestial body post resurrection(Acts 9, 1 Cor 15).

The question is, how big is that body in heaven.

Paul described it as omnipresent light in Acts 9 and celestial in 1 Cor 15.

Christendom denies it.
 
47 The first man is of the earth, earthy; the second man is the Lord from heaven.

48 As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly.
 
Question, does the human size body of Jesus move at the speed of light around the globe to appear to man or is the body omnipresent and everywhere simultaneously?
 
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