I chose to stick with 1 Pet. 2:3 b/c it so clearly refers to Jesus. Are there others?
Joel 2:32
32 "
And it will come about that whoever calls on the name of the Lord
Will be delivered;
For on Mount Zion and in Jerusalem
There will be those who escape,
As
the Lord has said,
Even among the survivors whom
the Lord calls.
Paul quotes this OT passage about YHWH and apply it to Jesus who is the one and only Lord according to the N.T.
Romans 10:9-13
that if you confess with your mouth
Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead,
you will be saved;
10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation.
11 For the Scripture says, "
WHOEVER BELIEVES IN HIM WILL NOT BE DISAPPOINTED."
12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for
the same Lord is Lord of C all, abounding in riches for all who call on Him;
13 for "
WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED."
John 12:41
These things Isaiah said, because he saw
His glory, and he spoke of
Him
Isaiah 6:1-10
In the year of King, Uzziah's death, I saw
the Lord sitting on a throne, lofty and exalted, with the train of His robe filling the temple. 2 Seraphim stood above Him, each having six wings; with two he covered his face, and with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew. 3 And one called out to another and said,
"Holy, Holy, Holy, is the Lord of hosts,,
The whole earth is full of
His glory."
4 And the foundations of the thresholds trembled at the voice of him who called out, while the temple was filling with smoke. 5 Then I said,
"Woe is me, for I am ruined!,
Because I am a man of unclean lips,
And I live among a people of unclean lips;,
For my eyes have seen the King, the Lord of hosts."
One need only follow the pronouns and the verbs. Isaiah saw the glory of YHWH. There is only ONE time that Isaiah saw the glory of YHWH; its in Ish 6. John says that Isaiah saw "his" glory, the glory of Jesus. That Isaiah ALSO foretold the suffering and rejection of Christ is true but irrelevant. You are confusing what Isaiah foretold (Christ's suffering and rejection) with what he literally "saw" (the glory of YWHW).
The verb Isaiah used for "saw" in 6;1 is רָאָה ("
ra'ah"). In the
qal, it refers to the act of seeing in the literal sense, to see with the eyes (as opposed to, for example, מַחֲזֶה "
machazeh", which is the act or event of an ecstatic "vision"). In referring to this event, John uses the Greek word εἶδον ("
eidon") - also a verb referring to the act of seeing with the eyes in the natural sense.
We know that God the Father is invisible, "whom no man hath seen, nor can see" (
1 Tim 6:16). He is transcendent and lives in unapproachable light (
1 Tim 6:16). But the Son is "the image of the invisible God" (
Col 1:15). Thus the one whom Isaiah "saw" in the literal sense with his eyes is the one whom he explicitly identified as "YHWH" - the same one whose glory he saw according to John (
Jn 12:41). Jesus himself makes this clear at v.45 "And he that seeth me seeth him that sent me."
There is only
ONE time when Isaiah saw someone he, speaking by the Holy Spirit identified as "YHWH", and John's spirit-inspired narrative of the interactions of Jesus with the Jews in the 11th and 12th chapter of his gospel, including their rejection of Christ, says that what Isaiah saw was
HIS (ie Jesus') glory. This works in perfect harmony with John's whole purpose, given the FACT that John had previously identified the one who became flesh and dwelt among us (
Jn 1:14) as "God" (
Jn 1:1). Nowhere in the context of this narrative (ie Ch 12) does John speak of Christ's "glorification" in his rejection and crucifixion. To claim that this is what John was talking about in referring to what Isaiah SAW with his eyes ignores the grammar and the immediate context, including the clear and unmistakable words of Christ himself in that very context.
hope this helps !!!
