I have found at least a dozen scholars who disagree with you. I have given you the sources already as I always do. Some of them are not publicly available to quote, but you can research them and find out why the vocative case is used for addressing people.
No you did not as my quotes showed. They all note the text has Thomas calling jesus my lord and my God
Among the hordes of Trinitarians and Greek experts who have had the privilege to translate and publish the Bible have ultimately disagreed with your translation. Though you quote those who say what you wish John 20:28 says, the Bible translations ultimately disagree with you and agree with me! Wow man.
You might find one or two translations, tops, that says what you say, but the vast majority in church circulation that are common today do not say "YOU ARE my Lord and my God." Based on this very fact alone, your theory about Jesus being addressed as God by Thomas is fully refuted.
Fantasy and wishful thinking as well as denial of plain English text
They all have Thomas addressing Jesus
Just shows how desperate and what lengths you will go to deny the deity of Christ
Thomas said unto him
Thomas is using
direct address (Vocative) to call Jesus his lord and his God according to Greek experts
John 20:28
My Lord and my God (ὁ κυριος μου και ὁ θεος μου [Ho kurios mou kai ho theos mou]). Not exclamation, but address, the vocative case though the form of the nominative, a very common thing in the Koiné. Thomas was wholly convinced and did not hesitate to address the Risen Christ as Lord and God. And Jesus accepts the words and praises Thomas for so doing.
A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament (Nashville, TN: Broadman Press, 1933), Jn 20:28.
The art. is used with θεός not merely because a voc. nom. is commonly art. in HGk. but in particular because when a poss. pron. follows a voc. nom., the noun is always art.
Thomas’s cry, “My Lord and my God!” is an exclamatory address, an exclamation specifically directed to Jesus, as its subject and recipient (note αὐτῷ). That the cry was not an extravagant acclamation, spoken in a moment of spiritual exaltation when his exuberance exceeded his theological sense, is apparent from two facts.
1. The evangelist records no rebuke of Jesus to Thomas for his worship (cf. 5:18; Acts 14:8–18; Rev 19:9–10; 21:8–9). Thomas was not guilty of worshiping the creature over the Creator (cf. Rom 1:25). Indeed, Jesus’ word to Thomas—“You have believed” (v. 29a)—implies the acceptance of his confession, which is then indirectly commended to others (v. 29b).
2. John has endorsed Thomas’s confession by making it his final and climactic Christological affirmation. The apostle found in Thomas’s cry a convenient means by which he might bring into sharp focus at the end of his gospel, as at its beginning (1:1, 18), the ultimate implications of his portrait of Jesus. As “Lord” in the physical and spiritual realms, Jesus shared his Father’s authority, functions, and rights (5:17–18, 21–23, 26). As “God,” he was one with the Father in his being (1:1, 18; 10:30).
Murray J. Harris, John (Exegetical Guide to the Greek New Testament; B&H Academic, 2015), 333–334.
The Socinian view, that these words, ὁ κύρ. μου κ. ὁ θεός μου, are merely an exclamation, is refuted—(1) By the fact that no such exclamations were in use among the Jews. (2) By the εἶπεν αὐτῷ. (3) By the impossibility of referring ὁ κύριός μου to another than Jesus: see ver. 13. (4) By the N.T. usage of expressing the vocative by the nom. with an article. (5) By the utter psychological absurdity of such a supposition: that one just convinced of the presence of Him whom he deeply loved, should, instead of addressing Him, break out into an irrelevant cry. (6) By the further absurdity of supposing that if such were the case, the Apostle John, who of all the sacred writers most constantly keeps in mind the object for which he is writing, should have recorded any thing so beside that object. (7) By the intimate conjunction of πεπίστευκας—see below. Dismissing it therefore, we observe that this is the highest confession of faith which has yet been made;—and that it shews that (though not yet fully) the meaning of the previous confessions of His being ‘the Son of God’ was understood. Thus John, in the very close of his Gospel (see on vv. 30, 31) iterates the testimony with which he began it—to the Godhead of the Word who became flesh: and by this closing confession, shews how the testimony of Jesus to Himself had gradually deepened and exalted the Apostles’ conviction, from the time when they knew Him only as ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Ἰωσήφ (ch. 1:46), till now when He is acknowledged as their LORD and their GOD.
Henry Alford, Alford’s Greek Testament: An Exegetical and Critical Commentary (vol. 1; Grand Rapids, MI: Guardian Press, 1976), 912.
Joh_20:28. Grotius, following Tertullian, Ambrose, Cyril and others, is of opinion that Thomas availed himself of the offered test: surely it is psychologically more probable that the test he had insisted on as alone sufficient is now repudiated, and that he at once exclaims, Ὁ Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου. His faith returns with a rebound and utters itself in a confession in which the gospel culminates. The words are not a mere exclamation of surprise. That is forbidden by εἶπεν αὐτῷ;
they mean “Thou art my Lord and my God”.
Expositors Greek testament
