MTMattie
Active member
It was when I wrote thatBesides post 567 is not the last post in the thread
It was when I wrote thatBesides post 567 is not the last post in the thread
I understand thatIt was when I wrote that
Sorry no you do notI have the better interpretation because mine is plausible at least. I will admit the Bible can be vague at times, but your claims are not even in the Bible. Where is the "Word with God" in Genesis in the beginning? Wow, that's a HUGE oversight to not actually include that in Scripture if it were true, but since they didn't include it then what your saying is probably false or applies different in a different context of the beginning of something else, such as the beginning of Jesus' ministry.
Water means nothing and it only gets you wet. The Catholics who have never been right about anything brought water in to take away from the power of the spirit that Christians are baptized in.View attachment 869
Okay, lets just assume that you are correct.
What was the purpose of Jesus in Math 28:19 “Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,
Not a word about baptizing only until the Resurrection.
OR
What was the purpose of Jesus being baptised himself?
Absolutely baptism with the Holy Spirit is fundamentally the most important....
It can also get you drownedWater means nothing and it only gets you wet. The Catholics who have never been right about anything brought water in to take away from the power of the spirit that Christians are baptized in.
Posts like this miss the context of scripture. The time that water baptism means nothing is when someone does it without having faith in Christ. Baptism is not required but it is symbolic of joining in Christ in death and resurrection.Water means nothing and it only gets you wet. The Catholics who have never been right about anything brought water in to take away from the power of the spirit that Christians are baptized in.
Not according to Scripture.Jesus assumed the prerogatives of Yahweh. He claimed to have control over mans eternal destiny (John 8:24, Luke 12:8-9, John 5:22, 27-29)
Jesus claimed to have authority over the Sabbath (Matthew 12:8, Mark 2:28, Luke 6:5)
Jesus claimed to have the power to answer prayer (John 14:13-14, Acts 7:59, 9:10-17)
Jesus claimed and to have the right to receive worship and faith due to God alone (Matthew 21:16, John 14:1, John 5:23).
Jesus claimed to forgive sins, something only God could do and the Jews knew this to be true. (Mark 2:5-11)
Jesus also called God's angels (Luke 12:8-9, 15:10) His angels (Matthew 13:41, 24:30-31)
Jesus called God's elect (Luke 18:7, Rom. 8:33) His elect (Matthew 24:30-31)
Jesus called God's kingdom (Matthew 12:28, Mark 1:15, Luke 4:43, John 3:3) His kingdom (Matthew 13:41, Luke 1:33).
The Lord's favorite description of Himself was "Son of Man" (cf. Matthew 8:20; Mark 2:28; Luke 6:22; John 9:35-37, etc.). Although that title seems to stress His humanity, it also speaks of His deity. Jesus' use of the term derives from Daniel 7:13-14, where the Son of Man is on equal terms with God the Father, the Ancient of Days.
Son of God- just as the son of man in most cases emphasizes Jesus humanity the title Son of God emphasizes His Deity. He has the same nature as His Father which is Divine. gty.org
Jesus claimed to be God. John 8:24,58, Revelation 1:8,17; 22:13
The Apostles called Him God- Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1,11; 1 John 5:20
hope this helps !!!
Jesus isn't the LORD YHWH in Psalm 2:7, Psalm 110:1, Micah 5:4, Exodus 3:14,15, etc. Therefore he isn't suddenly YHWH anywhere in Scripture. Jesus spoke of YHWH in the third-person perspective, which is how people talk of others who are not themselves, in Matthew 22:32. Peter did not identify Jesus as YHWH in Acts 3:13, bur rather YHWH's servant/son.Nothing vague below from Scripture- Christ is YHWH
Jesus is the Lord in Joel, Isaiah and Jeremiah
Joel 2:27-32
32 "And it will come about that whoever calls on the name of the LORD
Will be delivered;
For on Mount Zion and in Jerusalem
There will be those who escape,
As the LORD has said,
Even among the survivors whom the LORD calls.
This proves that Paul did not believe that Jesus is God. As was already stated above, no one, not even Jesus, believed that Jesus is YHWH nor has anyone said any such things. For example, Jesus' name isn't YHWH, but rather his real name is Yeshuah, which means that YHWH saves or YHWH is salvation. The Bible teaches that all salvation, eternal life, etc. comes from the Father is is Lord over all in Ephesians 4:4-6.Paul quotes Joel below and says it is Jesus who is the Lord(YHWH) whom all will call upon
Romans 10:9-13 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation. 11 For the Scripture says, "WHOEVER BELIEVES IN HIM WILL NOT BE DISAPPOINTED." 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of C all, abounding in riches for all who call on Him; 13 for "WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED."
This does not refer to Jesus nor did anyone in the New Testament said it did. You are thinking of John 12:40, 41 where the only part quoted from Isaiah 6 is verse 10. Therefore the only section in in Isaiah 6 that relates to Jesus is verse 10. The other parts are a different topic and context. To prove it, Isaiah 1:1 refers to Isaiah 6:1 as the vision concerning Judah and Jerusalem that Isaiah son of Amoz saw during the reigns of Uzziah.Isaiah 6:1-5
In the year of King, Uzziah's death, I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, lofty and exalted, with the train of His robe filling the temple. 2 Seraphim stood above Him, each having six wings; with two he covered his face, and with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew. 3 And one called out to another and said,
"Holy, Holy, Holy, is the Lord of hosts,,
The whole earth is full of His glory."
4 And the foundations of the thresholds trembled at the voice of him who called out, while the temple was filling with smoke. 5 Then I said,
5"Woe is me, for I am ruined!,
Because I am a man of unclean lips,
And I live among a people of unclean lips;,
For my eyes have seen the King, the Lord of hosts."
Below John says Isaiah saw His ( Jesus the Son's ) glory. This was the only time the prophet Isaiah saw the Lord ( YHWH )
John 12:41
These things Isaiah said, because he saw His glory, and he spoke of Him
This verse plainly teaches that when the name of Jesus is bowed to by anyone in heaven, earth, or under earth that he does not get in glory for it. The only one mentioned to be getting any glory is the Father. It doesn't even say that Jesus is being bowed to, but rather his name.Isaiah 45:21-24Is it not I, the LORD?
And there is no other God besides Me,
A righteous God and a Savior;
There is none except Me.
22 " Turn to Me and be saved, all the ends of the earth;
For I am God, and there is no other.
23 "I have sworn by Myself,
The word has gone forth from My mouth in righteousness
And will not turn back,
That to Me every knee will bow, every tongue will swear allegiance.
24 "They will say of Me, 'Only in the LORD are righteousness and strength.'
Now Paul quotes Isaiah about YHWH and declares it is Jesus(YHWH) whom all will bow before,
Philippians 2:9-11
For this reason also, God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, 10 so that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
According to 1 Corinthians 2:15, Paul seems to be suggesting that a normal Christian will have insight into a person's heart and mind; he said "The spiritual man judges all things, but he himself is not subject to anyone’s judgment." In this context, Paul that they have the mind of Christ and if you're saying the mind of Christ can search hearts then there is nothing stopping someone else from doing the same. This is called a spiritual gift and maybe you have experienced it before. Ever just "know" something about someone and you turned out to be right? That might have been this.Jeremiah 17:10 the Lord says
"I the LORD search the heart, I test the mind. Even to give every man according to his ways, according to the fruit of his doings"
In Revelation 2:23 Jesus says
"I am He who searches the minds and hearts and I will give to each one of you according to your works"
So if Jesus is not God why would he claim to do something in Revelation that Yahweh claimed in Jeremiah?
So is it Yahweh or Jesus who searches hearts and minds?
The only name that can possibly be above all names is the name of YHWH. This means that Jesus shares the personal name and authority of YHWH, making Him God Himself as no one can be equal to God except God alone.
hope this helps !!!
But you must admit that there is a point in which something about Jesus was created, the Bible does explicitly say this in Acts 13:33.Sorry no you do not
Creation was spoken of and recreation was not, Nor is it true Christ recreated all things
Context does not support your claim
The quote from Psalm 2 is not about birthing Jesus. It is about being made king over the nationsBut you must admit that there is a point in which something about Jesus was created, the Bible does explicitly say this in Acts 13:33.
Acts 13
33He has fulfilled for us, their children, by raising up Jesus. As it is written in the second Psalm: ‘You are My Son; today I have become Your Father.’
Those "have become your" words above refer to gegennēka procreation.
HELPS Word-studies
1080 gennáō – properly, beget (procreate a descendant), produce offspring; (passive) be born, "begotten."
Sure. The people this was shared with would know the context of the Psalm. If a person does not know the context but tries to use the verse, we call that a proof text that someone grabs because it sounds like their belief.The reference to Jesus as only begotten is in the sense of 'unique one' 'supreme heir' rather than 'born out of'... because the context around it is not about birthing.
ContextBut you must admit that there is a point in which something about Jesus was created, the Bible does explicitly say this in Acts 13:33.
Acts 13
33He has fulfilled for us, their children, by raising up Jesus. As it is written in the second Psalm: ‘You are My Son; today I have become Your Father.’
Those "have become your" words above refer to gegennēka procreation.
HELPS Word-studies
1080 gennáō – properly, beget (procreate a descendant), produce offspring; (passive) be born, "begotten."
I believe since the text uses the word for precreation we need to understand it around this idea. The Scripture states that those in the resurrection become children of God, i.e., sons and daughters of God like Jesus became in Acts 13:33.The quote from Psalm 2 is not about birthing Jesus. It is about being made king over the nations
The ruler tells what God decreed and said to him: ‘You are my son, today I have begotten you.’ In its context this refers to the way in which God legitimates the king as his son, in the same way as a father would accept his wife’s child as being really his son and so promise him loving care and protection; the idea of begetting is purely metaphorical
I. Howard Marshall, Acts: An Introduction and Commentary, InterVarsity Press, 1980, 240.
That was a nice attempt but you interpreted the passage in a fashion that made no sense. If you think you have some novel interpretation that everyone should follow, you should first check if there is a better understanding than you have. Otherwise, you just end up making bad arguments.
It clearly says "today" I have become your Father. Jesus become the definitive first begotten Son of God at his resurrection. Yes, Jesus was also God's begotten Son in a human sense, but in his resurrection is when he also become Son of God in that sense as well.Context
Acts 13:33–34 (NASB 2020) — 33 that God has fulfilled this promise to those of us who are the descendants by raising Jesus, as it is also written in the second Psalm: ‘YOU ARE MY SON; TODAY I HAVE FATHERED YOU.’ 34 As for the fact that He raised Him from the dead, never again to return to decay, He has spoken in this way: ‘I WILL GIVE YOU THE HOLY AND FAITHFUL MERCIES OF DAVID.’
Concerns the resurrection
Hello
Yes and it refers to the resurrection, But BTW the phrase/word appears before Acts 13.It clearly says "today" I have become your Father. Jesus become the definitive first begotten Son of God at his resurrection. Yes, Jesus was also God's begotten Son in a human sense, but in his resurrection is when he also become Son of God in that sense as well.
Romans 1
4and who through the Spirit of holiness was declared with power to be the Son of God by His resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord.
Except as the Word he always existed and was uncreatedI believe since the text uses the word for precreation we need to understand it around this idea. The Scripture states that those in the resurrection become children of God, i.e., sons and daughters of God like Jesus became in Acts 13:33.
Luke 2036In fact, they can no longer die, because they are like the angels. And since they are sons of the resurrection, they are sons of God.
In the resurrection, Jesus was changed into something he previously was not as Paul taught regarding resurrection.
1 Corinthians 1542So will it be with the resurrection of the dead: What is sown is perishable; it is raised imperishable. 43It is sown in dishonor; it is raised in glory. It is sown in weakness; it is raised in power. 44It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. If there is a natural body, there is also a spiritual body.
So yes it does refer to becoming a new creation. Jesus was created in every sense of the word, given his eternal life, raised to power, etc just like others will be according to Scripture.
I'm not sure why you want to neglect the context of Psalm 2 and what the significance is for Jews that heard this. I hope this is only due to lack of exegetical skills, even when your error is pointed out. And then you try to connect it with 1 Cor 15 which does not help explain Acts 13.I believe since the text uses the word for precreation we need to understand it around this idea. The Scripture states that those in the resurrection become children of God, i.e., sons and daughters of God like Jesus became in Acts 13:33.
Luke 2036In fact, they can no longer die, because they are like the angels. And since they are sons of the resurrection, they are sons of God.
In the resurrection, Jesus was changed into something he previously was not as Paul taught regarding resurrection.
1 Corinthians 1542So will it be with the resurrection of the dead: What is sown is perishable; it is raised imperishable. 43It is sown in dishonor; it is raised in glory. It is sown in weakness; it is raised in power. 44It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. If there is a natural body, there is also a spiritual body.
So yes it does refer to becoming a new creation. Jesus was created in every sense of the word, given his eternal life, raised to power, etc just like others will be according to Scripture.
It does not fit his doctrine. Acts13 does nothing to show Jesus/the Word was a created beingI'm not sure why you want to neglect the context of Psalm 2 and what the significance is for Jews that heard this. I hope this is only due to lack of exegetical skills, even when your error is pointed out. And then you try to connect it with 1 Cor 15 which does not help explain Acts 13.
I can understand that you are trying to figure out the text and you naturally try to fit the text to your view of scripture. However, you need to have some guidance from commentaries so you are not making so many mistakes. If you can make a good argument against the finding in a commentary, then try it out. But accept criticism when your argument is wrong.