Jesus denied being God

Which proves my point.
It's possible to sin against one brother without sinning against others just as it is possible to sin against Christ without sinning against the Father. It's because Jesus and the Father aren't God together. Jesus is a completely separate person independent of God. He's God's son, servant, etc. You already made this discussion super easy for me.
Give one example.
Luke 17:3
 
I don't deny this. Jesus did receive some formal training in order to be called "Rabbi."
And He might have been a Pharisee, too. His teaching is closer to Pharisaic teaching rather than Sadduceeic teaching.
I agree with that. Jesus' theology about the resurrection and other topics was absolutely compatible with Pharisaical theology as opposed to Sadducaical theology because they did not believe in the resurrection.
 
Ya think maybe someone should a or would a told YHWH, God the Father?
Hebrews 1:
6. And when He again brings the firstborn into the world, He says, “AND LET ALL THE ANGELS OF GOD WORSHIP HIM.”
(His firstborn would be Jesus)
It's not about formal worship as God, but rather about bowing to Jesus because he's a king. It also only applied to angels when Jesus was born and was not a general commandment to anyone else. There are also no commandments to worship Jesus in all of Scripture. The only teaching about who to worship is to the Father because the Father alone is God Almighty.

John 4
23But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him. 24God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.
7. And of the angels He says, “WHO MAKES HIS ANGELS WINDS, AND HIS MINISTERS A FLAME OF FIRE.”
8. But of the Son He says, “YOUR THRONE, O GOD, IS FOREVER AND EVER, AND THE RIGHTEOUS SCEPTER IS THE SCEPTER OF HIS KINGDOM. (Do not miss the fact of the Father speaking of the Son)

And do NOT raise up that sacrilegious piece of poppycock called the New World Translation. (Which is not inspired from God the Father)

I am just waiting until some stupid woke person comes along with a translation that somehow makes Jesus into a she.

Then... no words will be held back me.
Let's talk about this. Have you ever read Psalm 45:6 before? The whole chapter is about the very same person who was called ’ĕ·lō·hîm. Can ’ĕ·lō·hîm be used of humans who are not themselves God Almighty? Yes absolutely. For example, the context of Psalm 45:6 is about a king who had a queen. We know from Scripture that God nor Jesus were married nor have a queen. So the original context of Psalm 45, when the author of Hebrews quoted it, doesn't transfer deity to Jesus. Anyway, the point is that ’ĕ·lō·hîm can refer to humans. Hebrews 1:8 is not a proof-text for the deity of Jesus. Here's another example:

(parenthesis added by me)
Psalm 82 (KJV)
6I have said, Ye are gods (’ĕ·lō·hîm); and all of you are children of the most High.
 
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Someone of your depth of study should not have made the error you have done here.
If you check the parallel passages (Mark 2:1–12; Luke 5:17–26), those only convey the amazement of the Jews. The description of the people's view is not presenting an authoritative opinion of the people, merely their surprise. Jesus spoke only of himself as the one with this power. So again you twist this from being a single demonstration of Jesus' power to one of some general power. Worse, you would be saying that some undefined part of humanity has that power to forgive sins or even that all people have that power. So you just advocate a non-specific group of people with this authority, which is hardly basis to contrive your doctrine from.
Okay so the power Jesus had to forgive sins, despite it saying God gave the power immediately after it was mentioned, didn't come actually come from God? Please explain how God didn't give the men that power. Did Matthew record it wrong in your view?
 
'But I say unto you,
That every idle word that men shall speak,
they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment.
For by thy words thou shalt be justified,
and by thy words thou shalt be condemned.'

(Mat 12:36)

Hello there, @Runningman,

I believe in the deity of Christ.

In Christ Jesus
Chris
Everyone has beliefs. Belief does not require facts or proof to exist. Anyone can believe anything they wish because belief is not dependent on facts. If you want to believe in something that Bible does not support, then it's your choice. I know that, fundamentally, it's your religion and you're sticking with it. That's what everyone else does.
 
You haven't read Daniel 7 it seems. Daniel 7:13 is the proof text for the Son of man not being the Ancient of days.

Verse 18,22,27 says, in the KJV says that the kingdom, power, and authority belongs to the people. This means that since the son of man posses the same thing as the saints of the Most High, the the son of man himself is one of the power, one of the saints, not the Ancient of days or God Himself. Daniel 7 is a mighty chapter against the deity of Jesus.

Daniel 7
18But the saints of the most High shall take the kingdom, and possess the kingdom for ever, even for ever and ever.
...
22Until the Ancient of days came, and judgment was given to the saints of the most High; and the time came that the saints possessed the kingdom.
...
27And the kingdom and dominion, and the greatness of the kingdom under the whole heaven, shall be given to the people of the saints of the most High, whose kingdom is an everlasting kingdom, and all dominions shall serve and obey him.
You keep showing errors. Verse 14 shows Christ is given dominion.
Then to Him was given dominion and glory and a kingdom,
That all peoples, nations, and languages should serve Him
you are partially right that the saints were to reign with Christ. So you get a few point for that.
The main point in view is that the high priest recognized Jesus mention of Dan 7:13 as pointing to the deity of Christ. For your errors though and for denying the deity of Christ, you have negative points again.
 
I didn't make an interpretation. Did you read Matthew 96:-8? It is plain about the only power mentioned in the context as something that was given to the men (Jesus included) by God.

Matthew 9
6But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house. 7And he arose, and departed to his house. 8But when the multitudes saw it, they marvelled, and glorified God, which had given such power unto men.
You just do not learn anything and spew out the same nonsense. What men did the multitudes say had this authority from God to forgive sins on his behalf. It shows how far off track you have gotten. BUt maybe you were gone and have not caught up on posts the last several days. All you have done is some proof texting without checking the parallel passages. Usually you seem better than that.
 
Okay so the power Jesus had to forgive sins, despite it saying God gave the power immediately after it was mentioned, didn't come actually come from God? Please explain how God didn't give the men that power. Did Matthew record it wrong in your view?
Try going back to Sunday school. Again the multitude's view is represented here. They only knew the humanity aspect of God incarnate. I cannot believe you keep pushing this passage.
The multitude only saw Pharisees who kind of took on group authority and always had to refer to a greater rabbi. Jesus had authority in himself and showed this by forgiving their sin by his authority. the people were right to recognize this was divine authority. They saw this in the human incarnation without knowing his divinity. Consequently, the way they pieced these details together was from their perspective. So share your next passage to point out the deity of Christ.
 
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You keep showing errors. Verse 14 shows Christ is given dominion.

you are partially right that the saints were to reign with Christ. So you get a few point for that.
The main point in view is that the high priest recognized Jesus mention of Dan 7:13 as pointing to the deity of Christ. For your errors though and for denying the deity of Christ, you have negative points again.
The people, the very saints of the Most High, and the son of man both have the exact same dominion. The son of man is one from among the people and a ruler with the people, but is not himself the Most High. There's no error. Ruling with Christ from the same exact throne as Christ (the son of man) is a very common Biblical doctrine. It's all over Daniel 7, but there are others. I'll show some examples.

2 Timothy 2
12If we suffer, we shall also reign with him: if we deny him, he also will deny us:

Revelation 3
21To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.
 
You just do not learn anything and spew out the same nonsense. What men did the multitudes say had this authority from God to forgive sins on his behalf. It shows how far off track you have gotten. BUt maybe you were gone and have not caught up on posts the last several days. All you have done is some proof texting without checking the parallel passages. Usually you seem better than that.
You show great disdain for the Bible with the way you talk about what Matthew said. It says what it says. If you don't believe it then just say so.
 
Try going back to Sunday school. Again the multitude's view is represented here. They only knew the humanity aspect of God incarnate. I cannot believe you keep pushing this passage.
The multitude only saw Pharisees who kind of took on group authority and always had to refer to a greater rabbi. Jesus had authority in himself and showed this by forgiving their sin by his authority. the people were right to recognize this was divine authority. They saw this in the human incarnation without knowing his divinity. Consequently, the way they pieced these details together was from their perspective. So share your next passage to point out the deity of Christ.
Maybe it means Jesus isn't God since he didn't inherently possess the divine attribute of God to forgive sins? Even more than that, the other men also had the power to forgive sins too. I think the reason you are arguing against this particular passage is because it's incompatible with your religion. Your religion's teachings regarding Jesus being able to forgive sins as a sign that he is God cannot co-exist with Matthew 9:6-8.

Anyway, what's next. Anyone else have any other points to raise up?
 
You show great disdain for the Bible with the way you talk about what Matthew said. It says what it says. If you don't believe it then just say so.
You just do not make any logical sense with what your share. I have pointed out the errors of your interpretation. You treat the opinions of the multitude/audience more than the message of Christ. I do not know how you see that as convincing.
 
The people, the very saints of the Most High, and the son of man both have the exact same dominion. The son of man is one from among the people and a ruler with the people, but is not himself the Most High. There's no error. Ruling with Christ from the same exact throne as Christ (the son of man) is a very common Biblical doctrine. It's all over Daniel 7, but there are others. I'll show some examples.

2 Timothy 2
12If we suffer, we shall also reign with him: if we deny him, he also will deny us:

Revelation 3
21To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.
Those in Christ reign through him (or, as it were, in him). Unusual concept. but we cannot be in some man. Your proof texts are far from giving any of us reason to deny the deity of Christ
 
Maybe it means Jesus isn't God since he didn't inherently possess the divine attribute of God to forgive sins? Even more than that, the other men also had the power to forgive sins too. I think the reason you are arguing against this particular passage is because it's incompatible with your religion. Your religion's teachings regarding Jesus being able to forgive sins as a sign that he is God cannot co-exist with Matthew 9:6-8.

Anyway, what's next. Anyone else have any other points to raise up?
Maybe if you can make a legit argument to your view ... we'll wait and see. But remember that the multitude also did not follow Christ. They were judged. You should judge better whom you will trust.
 
You show great disdain for the Bible with the way you talk about what Matthew said. It says what it says. If you don't believe it then just say so.
you did not answer the question of which men the multitude figured could forgive sins on God's authority. Maybe you mean the Roman Catholic priests.

Also, if you say regular people have the authority by God to forgive sins against God, you then must expect that the same people go around healing the lame as a demonstration of that authority to forgive on God's behalf.

I presume then you are just saying Jesus was a mere man who went around teaching a healing ministry to the multitude. What else can we guess about your interpretation here?
 
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It's possible to sin against one brother without sinning against others just as it is possible to sin against Christ without sinning against the Father. It's because Jesus and the Father aren't God together. Jesus is a completely separate person independent of God. He's God's son, servant, etc. You already made this discussion super easy for me.

Luke 17:3
That must be an interesting argument you make of sinning against Christ without sinning against the Father. That would not even apply when David repents of killing Uriah.
 
Those in Christ reign through him (or, as it were, in him). Unusual concept. but we cannot be in some man. Your proof texts are far from giving any of us reason to deny the deity of Christ
It matches the concept of the kingdom and rulership belonging to the people. It's not exclusive to Jesus.
 
You just do not make any logical sense with what your share. I have pointed out the errors of your interpretation. You treat the opinions of the multitude/audience more than the message of Christ. I do not know how you see that as convincing.
I follow conventional reason and logic in which words mean what they say they do. You have, and probably always will, impose your theology onto the scripture, thus overriding a consistent reading of the Bible. For example, for you I am sure that because since Jesus is the son of God then that means he's God. For me, Jesus being the son of God does not mean he's God because there are billions of other sons of God.
 
you did not answer the question of which men the multitude figured could forgive sins on God's authority. Maybe you mean the Roman Catholic priests.

Also, if you say regular people have the authority by God to forgive sins against God, you then must expect that the same people go around healing the lame as a demonstration of that authority to forgive on God's behalf.

I presume then you are just saying Jesus was a mere man who went around teaching a healing ministry to the multitude. What else can we guess about your interpretation here?
Matthew 9:6-8 doesn't drop names, but it's most likely Jesus and the disciples.
 
That must be an interesting argument you make of sinning against Christ without sinning against the Father. That would not even apply when David repents of killing Uriah.
The below is proof one can sin against Christ without sinning against the Father.

1 Corinthians 8
12But when ye sin so against the brethren, and wound their weak conscience, ye sin against Christ.

No mention of the Father in the above verse, no mention of sinning against Jesus being tantamount to a sinning against God, or sinning against the Father, or sinning against the Holy Spirit. It's because the Trinity is a bunk idea. It's bad theology. Actually, I will take it a step further. A sin against Jesus is not a sin against God at all. Know why? He proved such in his teachings. See below.

Speaking against Jesus is forgivable. Speaking against God is not forgivable. Catching on yet? @Fred

Matthew 12
31Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men. 32And
whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the world to come.
 
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