He that believes and is not water baptised is saved

First off, the OT was fulfilled, and so is no longer applicable to those living after Jesus died.
Second, Deut 4:2 is only applicable to the Law which Moses was speaking to the nation of Israel. It is not applicable to the NT.
Third, I am not adding to, nor am I taking away from, any NT commandment. On the contrary, I am teaching exactly what Scripture says. It is those who claim "belief only" that are taking away from Scripture. They ignore direct statements of God, explain away clear teaching from God, and prove that God is not really their Lord by defying His direct commands.
That's the worst dodge i've ever heard. Let's take number three when you paraphrase what Jesus said instead of giving the location of the verse for the verse itself it is taking away and having to description and that's what you post was paraphrase.

You take your opinion and insist that is what God said. The problem with that is you're clearly wrong. It's what you think God said. That's just your interpretation.
 
Certainly, water baptism is an important act of obedience. Anyone professing to believe in/have faith in Jesus Christ for salvation and yet refuses to be water baptized is of questionable sincerity. It's unthinkable that anyone who truly believes the gospel would refuse to be water baptized. I could not wait to get water baptized after my conversion and I cannot think of one Christian that I know who has refused to be water baptized after their conversion.

Baptism would have no meaning without Christ’s death, burial and resurrection, but Christ’s death, burial and resurrection would still have meaning, even if there were no baptism. In other words, Christ’s death, burial and resurrection is the substance and baptism is the sign/symbol/picture. Without the substance there would be no sign/symbol/picture. As in marriage, a man and a woman become united through their wedding vows and the ring symbolizes this. Just as we become united with Christ through faith and water baptism symbolizes this.

Strictly speaking, the husband is united to his wife because of the marriage vows rather than the ring. Yet since the latter is the sign of their union, it is natural to speak of the ring to mean the reality it represents. "With this ring, I thee wed," although the ring is not the actual cause of the change in the marital status, just like water baptism is not the actual cause of our salvation status.

Baptism put it in its proper place, subsequent to salvation through faith in Christ as all rites and works must be. Baptism is for believers, and believers are already saved the moment that they place their faith in Jesus Christ alone for salvation. The Bible says we are saved by grace through faith, not by rites or religious works, or good works (Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9). This does not remove good works/acts of obedience (including water baptism) from the Christian life, it just puts them in their proper place, subsequent to regeneration and salvation.
You gave a very good explanation, thank you.:love:
 
John 3:5 simply says "water" and the Spirit and not (water baptism). You read your personal bias into the verse and added to scripture. In John 3:15,16,18 Jesus makes the connection between belief and salvation "apart from water baptism." Elsewhere in the book of John, Jesus further makes the same connection. (5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) In the very next chapter, Jesus mentions "living water" in John 4:10, 14 and He connects living water with eternal life in John 4:14. Also, in John 7:38-39, we read - "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water. But this He spoke concerning the Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the source of living water (which reaches the heart) and spiritual cleansing.
I have explained my reasoning for seeing baptism in John 3:5. It is not personal bias, but proper Biblical reasoning. Yes, belief, as referenced in John 3:15,16, & 18 is associated with salvation. So is obedience to Jesus' commands (John 3:36), obedience being the opposite of unbelief. The Spirit is certainly associated with salvation, as John 3:5 says, but so is water. What you refuse to accept is the other connections to salvation made by God in Rom 10:9-10, Col 2:11-14, Rom 6:1-7, Acts 2:38, Acts 8:36, Acts 22:16, Gal 3:26-27, and others.
If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again. Also "water" is used in the Bible as an emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is associated with cleansing or washing. (John 15:3; Ephesians 5:26) When we are born again, the Holy Spirit begets new life, so that we are said to become "partakers of the divine nature." (2 Peter 1:4) The new birth is brought to pass through "incorruptible seed, by the word of God, which lives and abides forever" (I Peter 1:23) and the Holy Spirit accomplishes the miracle of regeneration. (Titus 3:5) So, to automatically read "baptism" into John 3:5 simply because it mentions "water" is unwarranted.
Again, we have already been over this pathetic argument.
Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved (general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely necessary for salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief and not on a lack of baptism. *NOWHERE does the Bible say, "baptized or condemned." If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then we would expect Jesus to mention it in the following verses. (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) Yet what is the 1 requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements *BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.

John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

In Peter 3:21, Peter tells us that baptism now saves you (I noticed you stopped right there and ignored the rest)
I did not stop there. I explained what is being talked about, but you skipped my further statements.
yet when Peter uses this phrase he continues in the same sentence to explain exactly what he means by it. He said that baptism now saves you-not the removal of dirt from the flesh (that is, not as an outward, physical act which washes dirt from the body--that is not what saves you), "but an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (that is, as an inward, spiritual transaction between God and the individual, a transaction that is symbolized by the outward ceremony of water baptism).

*Just as the eight people in the ark were "saved THROUGH water" as they were IN THE ARK. They were not literally saved "by" the water. Hebrews 11:7 is clear on this point (..built an ARK for the SAVING of his household). *The context reveals that ONLY the righteous (Noah and his family) were DRY and therefore SAFE. In contrast, only the wicked in Noah's day came in contract with the water and they all perished.

Removal of sin/being united with Christ in His death, burial and resurrection/clothed in Christ is SIGNIFIED in water but NOT PROCURED. As Greek scholar AT Robertson said - A symbol is not the reality but is a picture of the reality. (y)You need to learn how to read scripture in context and properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine. Your eisegesis is noted.
You seem to have a preconception of your own: that there is no physical action that man must take that leads to receiving salvation from God. That preconception is completely destroyed by Rom 10:9-10, but I know you won't accept that truth. That preconception blinds you to the truth of the necessity of baptism. You have already posted these exact statements before. And I have addressed them all from Scripture. You only read the statements I post to the point that you find some point you can pick at, trying to unravel the truth by worming in a lie.
 
That's the worst dodge i've ever heard. Let's take number three when you paraphrase what Jesus said instead of giving the location of the verse for the verse itself it is taking away and having to description and that's what you post was paraphrase.

You take your opinion and insist that is what God said. The problem with that is you're clearly wrong. It's what you think God said. That's just your interpretation.
In number three, I did not refer to, or paraphrase, any Scripture, unless you are referring to a post that you did not quote. What verse are you saying I paraphrased?
 
I have explained my reasoning for seeing baptism in John 3:5. It is not personal bias, but proper Biblical reasoning. Yes, belief, as referenced in John 3:15,16, & 18 is associated with salvation. So is obedience to Jesus' commands (John 3:36), obedience being the opposite of unbelief. The Spirit is certainly associated with salvation, as John 3:5 says, but so is water. What you refuse to accept is the other connections to salvation made by God in Rom 10:9-10, Col 2:11-14, Rom 6:1-7, Acts 2:38, Acts 8:36, Acts 22:16, Gal 3:26-27, and others.

Again, we have already been over this pathetic argument.

I did not stop there. I explained what is being talked about, but you skipped my further statements.

You seem to have a preconception of your own: that there is no physical action that man must take that leads to receiving salvation from God. That preconception is completely destroyed by Rom 10:9-10, but I know you won't accept that truth. That preconception blinds you to the truth of the necessity of baptism. You have already posted these exact statements before. And I have addressed them all from Scripture. You only read the statements I post to the point that you find some point you can pick at, trying to unravel the truth by worming in a lie.
Yes we have been over this before and you seem to have more faith in physical actions taken by man to save you (with a heavy emphasis on water baptism) than you do in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ. BTW: Confession is an expression of faith and not a work for salvation. Don't forget to include verse 8 before you hastily apply your eisegesis to Romans 10:9,10.

Also, in regard to John 3:36, I often hear works-salvationists cite John 3:36 in the NASB and "stress" the word "obey" to imply that we are saved "by" obedience/works. In regard to "does not obey the Son" in the New American Standard translation of the Bible, this does not mean that receiving eternal life is received based on the merits of our obedience/works which "follow" believing in the Son, but obey by choosing to believe in the Son.

If John wanted to make obedience the central theme in salvation here, he would have said: "He who believes and obeys the Son has eternal life," but that is not what John said. To obey the Son here is to choose to believe in the Son.

The King James Version renders this same verse as: He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that "believeth not the Son" shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him. The NIV says "rejects the Son" and the HCSB says, "refuses to believe in the Son."

To refuse to believe in the Son is to disobey, rebel, be disloyal and refuse conformity. Strong’s definition of apeitheo is "to disbelieve willfully and perversely." *In the context of 3:36, to "not obey the Son" means to reject the Son by refusing to believe in the Son. This belief is not in Jesus Christ + something else otherwise the belief/trust/reliance would not be IN/ON THE SON.
 
In number three, I did not refer to, or paraphrase, any Scripture, unless you are referring to a post that you did not quote. What verse are you saying I paraphrased?


We are living after Jesus died. So are the following Old Testament verses no longer applicable to us?

"Man shall not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes out of the mouth of God."
"You shall not put the Lord your God to the test."
"You shall worship the Lord your God and serve Him only."

Are these truths and commands no longer applicable to us?

How about the decision of the Jerusalem council in Acts 15:20? They gave the following instructions to new Gentile believers:
" ... abstain from things contaminated by idols, from acts of sexual immorality, and from what has been strangled, and from blood."
These commands are based on the Old Covenant law. So are they applicable to us today?
 
Yes we have been over this before and you seem to have more faith in physical actions taken by man to save you (with a heavy emphasis on water baptism) than you do in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ. BTW: Confession is an expression of faith and not a work for salvation. Don't forget to include verse 8 before you hastily apply your eisegesis to Romans 10:9,10.
Dan, what is faith? You would have us believe that it is nothing more than an intellectual assent, a mental "belief", that the Gospel is true. Nothing could be further from the truth. James 2 makes it clear that faith requires, demands, is absolutely meaningless without, action. Action completes faith, and because faith comes before salvation (because salvation comes through faith (Eph 2:8-9)), action must come before salvation. What action(s)? Repentance (Acts 2:38, Acts 3:19), Confession of Jesus as Lord (Rom 10:9-10), Baptism (Acts 2:38, Mark 16:16, John 3:5, 1 Pet 3:21). These actions, and only these actions, Scripture says "lead to" receiving salvation.
Also, in regard to John 3:36, I often hear works-salvationists cite John 3:36 in the NASB and "stress" the word "obey" to imply that we are saved "by" obedience/works. In regard to "does not obey the Son" in the New American Standard translation of the Bible, this does not mean that receiving eternal life is received based on the merits of our obedience/works which "follow" believing in the Son, but obey by choosing to believe in the Son.
Talk about twisting a passage to fit a preconception. You see the words, you understand the meaning of each word separately, and still you cannot accept the meaning of them together. This verse connects belief with obedience, and disbelief with disobedience. If we believe (pistis in the Greek, meaning have faith (which requires action)) then we have eternal life. But if we do not obey (the action behind faith, meaning we do not have faith) then we do not have eternal life, but receive wrath.
If John wanted to make obedience the central theme in salvation here, he would have said: "He who believes and obeys the Son has eternal life," but that is not what John said. To obey the Son here is to choose to believe in the Son.
If giving intellectual assent were the only command that Scripture says "leads to" receiving salvation, then I would agree with you. But there are three physical actions that Scripture says lead to receiving salvation, and 99% obedience is not obedience. If you believe and repent but are not baptized, then you have not obeyed. If you believe and are baptized but have not repented, you have not obeyed. Believe, Repent, and be Baptized are all required to get into the Body, and once in the blood of Christ continually cleanses us from sin. But until we are in the Body, we do not receive any cleansing.
The King James Version renders this same verse as: He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that "believeth not the Son" shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him. The NIV says "rejects the Son" and the HCSB says, "refuses to believe in the Son."

To refuse to believe in the Son is to disobey, rebel, be disloyal and refuse conformity. Strong’s definition of apeitheo is "to disbelieve willfully and perversely." *In the context of 3:36, to "not obey the Son" means to reject the Son by refusing to believe in the Son. This belief is not in Jesus Christ + something else otherwise the belief/trust/reliance would not be IN/ON THE SON.
Again, the word "believe" here is not indicating "intellectual assent" but comes from the word "pistis" which means "faith", and faith requires action. This is not just "believing" in Jesus, but being obedient to His commands. If we do not obey Him then He is not our Lord, and if He is not our Lord then He will not be our savior.
 
We are living after Jesus died. So are the following Old Testament verses no longer applicable to us?

"Man shall not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes out of the mouth of God."
"You shall not put the Lord your God to the test."
"You shall worship the Lord your God and serve Him only."

Are these truths and commands no longer applicable to us?

How about the decision of the Jerusalem council in Acts 15:20? They gave the following instructions to new Gentile believers:
" ... abstain from things contaminated by idols, from acts of sexual immorality, and from what has been strangled, and from blood."
These commands are based on the Old Covenant law. So are they applicable to us today?
No command from the OT is still binding on us today. But many commands from the OT were restated as a command in the NT, and so those are still commands for us today. For example, nine of the Ten Commandments were restated in the NT, and so are still binding. But keeping the sabbath was not restated in the NT, and so the keeping of the sabbath is not a command we are bound to today.

The instructions from the council in Acts 15:20 are not all binding commands on us today. Yes, abstaining from sexual immorality is a commandment given several places in the NT, so that is binding on us because of those other passages. But eating meet sacrificed to idols is not forbidden because as Paul says, the idol is nothing so the meat is not contaminated by the nothing to which is was offered (unless you believe the idol is something)(1 Cor 8). Things strangled and blood are not commands given in the NT anywhere else (that I am aware of), but were included to reduce friction between the Gentile and Jewish Christians. Most of the Jews continued with the dietary restrictions because even though they are no longer Law, they are still cultural traditions.
 
Dan, what is faith?
Hebrews 11:1 - Now faith is the assurance of things hoped for, the conviction of things not seen.
You would have us believe that it is nothing more than an intellectual assent, a mental "belief", that the Gospel is true.
Merely believing that the death, burial and resurrection of Christ "happened" is intellectual assent and even the demons believe this. It's not enough to believe that it happened. We must also trust in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation. That is the belief that saves. (Romans 1:16; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4) The gospel is hidden to those who do not believe. (2 Corinthians 4:3,4)
Nothing could be further from the truth. James 2 makes it clear that faith requires, demands, is absolutely meaningless without, action. Action completes faith, and because faith comes before salvation (because salvation comes through faith (Eph 2:8-9)), action must come before salvation.
Faith comes before salvation and works follow. (Ephesians 2:8-10) Your error results in salvation by faith + action/works. In regard to James 2, James is discussing the evidence of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God. (Romans 4:2-3)

In James 2:22, faith made perfect or complete by works means bring to maturity, to complete like love in 1 John 4:18. It doesn't mean that Abraham was finally saved based on merits of his works after he offered up Isaac on the altar in Genesis 22. When Abraham performed the good work in Genesis 22; he fulfilled the expectations created by the pronouncement of his faith in Genesis 15:6.
What action(s)? Repentance (Acts 2:38, Acts 3:19), Confession of Jesus as Lord (Rom 10:9-10), Baptism (Acts 2:38, Mark 16:16, John 3:5, 1 Pet 3:21). These actions, and only these actions, Scripture says "lead to" receiving salvation.
Repentance is a "change of mind" which precedes believe/believe the gospel/faith in Jesus Christ. (Matthew 21:32; Mark 1:15; Acts 20:21) Confession is an expression of faith and not a work for salvation. Confessing with our mouth that Jesus is Lord and believing in our heart that God raised him from the dead are not two separate steps to salvation but are chronologically together. (Romans 10:8-10) Don't forget verse 8.
Talk about twisting a passage to fit a preconception.
That describes you. It's called eisegesis.
You see the words, you understand the meaning of each word separately, and still you cannot accept the meaning of them together. This verse connects belief with obedience, and disbelief with disobedience.
Choosing to believe in the Son is the act of obedience that saves and refusing to believe in the Son is the act of disobedience that condemns. Not to be confused with multiple acts of obedience/works which follows choosing to believe in the Son. Those who teach salvation by works basically define faith as "obedience/works."
If we believe (pistis in the Greek, meaning have faith (which requires action)) then we have eternal life. But if we do not obey (the action behind faith, meaning we do not have faith) then we do not have eternal life, but receive wrath.
If we believe in Christ/trust in Him for salvation, then we have eternal life. If we do not believe in Christ/do not trust in Him for salvation, then we do not have eternal life but receive wrath. This has nothing to do with salvation by works.
If giving intellectual assent were the only command that Scripture says "leads to" receiving salvation, then I would agree with you.
The church of Christ basically see's faith as mental assent belief "conjoined" with works. Folks in the church of Christ cannot seem to understand a deeper faith which trusts in Jesus Christ alone for salvation which explains why these folks have so much faith in "water and works."
But there are three physical actions that Scripture says lead to receiving salvation, and 99% obedience is not obedience. If you believe and repent but are not baptized, then you have not obeyed. If you believe and are baptized but have not repented, you have not obeyed. Believe, Repent, and be Baptized are all required to get into the Body, and once in the blood of Christ continually cleanses us from sin. But until we are in the Body, we do not receive any cleansing.
Mere mental assent belief, along with moral self-reformation along with lip service confession and being immersed in H20 is not obedience unto salvation. It's a flawed formula. Repentance actually precedes believing unto salvation, yet you reverse the order. If you are trusting in water baptism for salvation instead of trusting in Jesus Christ alone for salvation, then you have not obeyed by choosing to repent and believe the gospel. (Acts 15:7-9; Romans 10:16) We get into the body of Christ through Spirit baptism (1 Corinthians 12:13) and not water baptism. This happens when we believe on the Lord Jesus Christ/believe the gospel. (Acts 11:16; Ephesians 1:13)
Again, the word "believe" here is not indicating "intellectual assent" but comes from the word "pistis" which means "faith", and faith requires action. This is not just "believing" in Jesus, but being obedient to His commands. If we do not obey Him then He is not our Lord, and if He is not our Lord then He will not be our savior.
Again, your error here results in salvation by faith + works. The Greek words for "pistis" and "pisteuo" are two forms of the same word. "Pistis" is the noun form, "pisteuo" is the verb form. Nothing in the root meaning of either word carries any concept of works. If you believe in/have faith in Christ unto salvation, then you are trusting in Him alone to save you. This belief results in actions appropriate to the belief (to one degree or the other/all genuine believers are fruitful, yet not all are equally fruitful - Matthew 13:23) - but the actions are NOT INHERENT in the belief. Prior to my conversion, while still attending the Roman Catholic church several years ago, I was also confused about this, and basically defined faith "as" obedience/works just as all works-salvationists do, including yourself.
 
Hebrews 11:1 - Now faith is the assurance of things hoped for, the conviction of things not seen.
That is a bad translation that does not agree with other passages of Scripture. Faith is not assurance and conviction, it is substance and evidence. Faith without action is dead (James 2:26). We are not justified by faith alone, but by the actions that complete and perfect faith (James 2:24).
Merely believing that the death, burial and resurrection of Christ "happened" is intellectual assent and even the demons believe this. It's not enough to believe that it happened. We must also trust in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation. That is the belief that saves. (Romans 1:16; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4) The gospel is hidden to those who do not believe. (2 Corinthians 4:3,4)
Do you really trust if you do not obey? No. Without obedience, taking action in response to what you say you believe, you don't really believe. If you trust that Jesus' death, burial, and resurrection is sufficient for salvation, then you will do what He says is required to receive His forgiveness.
Faith comes before salvation and works follow. (Ephesians 2:8-10) Your error results in salvation by faith + action/works.
Faith is not faith without works. There are two different categories of "works" in play here. "Good works" are indeed those actions that come after and "flow out from" having received salvation. But there are three actions of faith (repentance, confession, and baptism) that God has said "lead to" or "result in" receiving salvation. These actions are not "good works", nor would they merit any reward.
In regard to James 2, James is discussing the evidence of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God. (Romans 4:2-3)

In James 2:22, faith made perfect or complete by works means bring to maturity, to complete like love in 1 John 4:18. It doesn't mean that Abraham was finally saved based on merits of his works after he offered up Isaac on the altar in Genesis 22. When Abraham performed the good work in Genesis 22; he fulfilled the expectations created by the pronouncement of his faith in Genesis 15:6.
That could possibly be the case if it weren't for the statements in James 2:24 and 26. Faith is not just brought to maturity, but it is given life by action. It is not by our faith alone that we are justified, but by our actions that we are justified. You are seeking to separate into two pieces something that is only real when it is united. Just as the body without the spirit is dead, so too faith without action is dead.
Repentance is a "change of mind" which precedes believe/believe the gospel/faith in Jesus Christ. (Matthew 21:32; Mark 1:15; Acts 20:21)
Repentance does not precede belief. One will not repent until and unless he believes there is a reason to repent. Belief (the intellectual assent) in the Gospel must come before one will repent.
Confession is an expression of faith and not a work for salvation. Confessing with our mouth that Jesus is Lord and believing in our heart that God raised him from the dead are not two separate steps to salvation but are chronologically together. (Romans 10:8-10) Don't forget verse 8.
I didn't say they were two steps, they should and do come together, and as Paul says, they RESULT IN our receiving salvation. They both must come before salvation is received, thus an action results in salvation being received.
That describes you. It's called eisegesis.
And that is what you are doing when you try to separate faith from action (works). That is like trying to take a body without a soul and calling it a living person.
Choosing to believe in the Son is the act of obedience that saves and refusing to believe in the Son is the act of disobedience that condemns.
No, we are already condemned even before we hear anything about the Son. Choosing to believe (give intellectual assent) in the Son is not the act that saves. Rom 10:9-10 says that belief and confession with the mouth lead to receiving salvation. Acts 2:38 says that repentance and baptism lead to receiving forgiveness of sin (salvation). Rom 6:1-7 says that baptism it the point at which we die to sin and are united with Jesus' resurrection. Col 2:11-14 says that baptism is the point at which the Holy Spirit cuts our sin from us and unites us with Jesus. 1 Pet 3:21 says that baptism save us by giving us a new conscience. All of these must be true or there is a contradiction in Scripture, and I trust that we both agree there is no chance of that.
Not to be confused with multiple acts of obedience/works which follows choosing to believe in the Son. Those who teach salvation by works basically define faith as "obedience/works."
That is exactly how Scripture defines faith, so why are you fighting against God? There are certainly many works of obedience that come after salvation is received. But there are three that Scripture says come before it is received.
If we believe in Christ/trust in Him for salvation, then we have eternal life. If we do not believe in Christ/do not trust in Him for salvation, then we do not have eternal life but receive wrath. This has nothing to do with salvation by works.
If you don't obey Him, then you really don't trust Him. If you don't trust Him, He cannot and will not save you.
The church of Christ basically see's faith as mental assent belief "conjoined" with works. Folks in the church of Christ cannot seem to understand a deeper faith which trusts in Jesus Christ alone for salvation which explains why these folks have so much faith in "water and works."
The Bible defines faith as mental assent and the actions that it causes, both combined into one concept. They are like the sides of a coin. You cannot have one without the other; each completes the other.
Mere mental assent belief, along with moral self-reformation along with lip service confession and being immersed in H20 is not obedience unto salvation. It's a flawed formula.
Based on human reason, you are correct. And that is exactly what God said would happen with human reason, it fails to see and understand God's plan and purpose.
Moral SELF-REFORMATION is meaningless, but turning toward and throwing oneself on the mercy of God leads to forgiveness.
LIP SERVICE CONFESSION is meaningless, but a heartfelt, public, verbal confess of Jesus as Lord results in salvation.
Being immersed in H2O would just get one wet (as it does when one takes a bath or goes swimming), but doing so trusting that Jesus will do as He said He would results in the Holy Spirit cutting sin from us, dying to sin, being raised to new life, and being united to the Body of Christ.
Repentance actually precedes believing unto salvation, yet you reverse the order.
Scripture places belief before repentance. Acts 2:37-38 shows that the men of Jerusalem believed (were pricked to the heart) before they were told to repent. Acts 26:18 says that Jesus sent Paul (Saul at the time) to go and help people believe so that they will turn from wickedness (repent). "I am sending you, to open their eyes so that they may turn from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins"
If you are trusting in water baptism for salvation instead of trusting in Jesus Christ alone for salvation, then you have not obeyed by choosing to repent and believe the gospel. (Acts 15:7-9; Romans 10:16)
Did Naaman trust in Jordan to remove his leprosy? No, he trusted in the words of his servant, who trusted in God that the prophet served. It is the same with us. I do not trust in baptism for salvation, I trust in Jesus who commanded baptism as the point at which I will receive His salvation.
We get into the body of Christ through Spirit baptism (1 Corinthians 12:13) and not water baptism. This happens when we believe on the Lord Jesus Christ/believe the gospel. (Acts 11:16; Ephesians 1:13)
That is not what Jesus says. He commanded the Apostles to do the baptizing (Matt 28:19), and He spoke through Peter on Pentecost saying that we are to repent and be baptized in order to receive forgiveness of sin. And He spoke through Peter saying that baptism in water now saves us.
Again, your error here results in salvation by faith + works. The Greek words for "pistis" and "pisteuo" are two forms of the same word. "Pistis" is the noun form, "pisteuo" is the verb form. Nothing in the root meaning of either word carries any concept of works.
They may not be linked in error prone, human writings like dictionaries, but they do because James and the Hebrew writer link them. Faith is the body to action the soul. As the body without the soul is dead, faith without action is dead. Faith is incomplete without action. Faith is evidence (something you can see) and substance (something you can feel).
 
Doug Brents said: That is a bad translation that does not agree with other passages of Scripture. Faith is not assurance and conviction, it is substance and evidence. Faith without action is dead (James 2:26). We are not justified by faith alone, but by the actions that complete and perfect faith (James 2:24).
It's not a bad translation in the NASB1995 and multiple other translations are in agreement.
Do you really trust if you do not obey? No.
Trusting in a false gospel for salvation is not obeying. We obey the gospel (Romans 10:16) by choosing to believe the gospel (Romans 1:16) by trusting in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation. (1 Corinthians 15:1-4)
Without obedience, taking action in response to what you say you believe, you don't really believe. If you trust that Jesus' death, burial, and resurrection is sufficient for salvation, then you will do what He says is required to receive His forgiveness.
Without faith it's impossible to please God no matter how much alleged obedience that you set out to accomplish in a vain attempt to obtain salvation by works. (Matthew 7:22-23) If you trust that Jesus' death, burial, and resurrection is sufficient then you will not also be trusting in works for salvation. Jesus, along with Peter and Paul made it clear what is required for forgiveness. (John 3:15,16,18; John 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; Acts 13:38-39; 26:18 etc..).
Faith is not faith without works.
Yes, it is. Faith is established first and then works follow. (Ephesians 2:5-10) We are saved by faith at its origin and not a sometime later, after we accomplish a list of works. Works are the fruit, by product and demonstrative evidence of faith, but not the essence of faith and also not the basis or means by which we obtain salvation.
There are two different categories of "works" in play here. "Good works" are indeed those actions that come after and "flow out from" having received salvation.
Yes, good works are indeed actions that come AFTER and flow out from having received salvation through faith. (y)
But there are three actions of faith (repentance, confession, and baptism) that God has said "lead to" or "result in" receiving salvation. These actions are not "good works", nor would they merit any reward.
You are confused. Faith is not defined as repentance, confession and baptism. By the time you place repentance "after" faith and re-define it as "moral self-reformation" and you turn confession into a work for salvation "after" faith and baptism into a work for salvation "after" faith you are teaching salvation by works no matter how much you try and sugar coat it. There is no merit in changing your mind or expressing the word of faith that is in your mouth and in your heart together. There would be merit in your 4-step plan of salvation that culminates in salvation by water baptism and is the result of bad semantics and flawed hermeneutics.
That could possibly be the case if it weren't for the statements in James 2:24 and 26. Faith is not just brought to maturity, but it is given life by action.
That's false. Faith demonstrates that it's alive by works but works are not the source of life in faith. Dead faith does not produce works in order to become a living faith just as a dead tree does not produce fruit in order to become a living tree. You place the cart before the horse.

In regard to James 2:24, James is not using the word "justified" here to mean "accounted as righteous" but is shown to be righteous. James is discussing the evidence of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God. (Romans 4:2-3)

In James 2:26, the comparison of the human spirit and faith converges around their modes of operation. The spirit (Greek pneuma) may also be translated "breath." As a breathless body exhibits no indication of life, so fruitless faith exhibits no indication of life. The source of the life in faith is not works; rather, life in faith is the source of works. (Ephesians 2:5-10) You have it backwards.
It is not by our faith alone that we are justified, but by our actions that we are justified. You are seeking to separate into two pieces something that is only real when it is united. Just as the body without the spirit is dead, so too faith without action is dead.
More confusion on your part. Man is saved through faith and not by works (Romans 4:5-6; Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9); yet genuine faith is (evidenced) by works. (James 2:14-26) Christ saves us through faith based on the merits of His finished work of redemption "alone" and not based on the merits of our works. It is through faith "in Christ alone" (and not based on the merits of our works) that we are justified on account of Christ (Romans 3:24-28; 5:1; 5:9); yet the faith that justifies does not remain alone (unfruitful, barren) if it is genuine. (James 2:14-26) *Perfect Harmony* :) Man is saved through faith in Christ alone (apart from the merit of works) yet authentic faith does not remain alone (apart from the presence of works). This is not hard to understand. It's just hard for people who embrace salvation by faith + works to ACCEPT.

CONTINUED...
 
Doug Brents said: Repentance does not precede belief. One will not repent until and unless he believes there is a reason to repent. Belief (the intellectual assent) in the Gospel must come before one will repent.
You are talking about mere "mental assent" belief. You would need to believe "mental assent" that Jesus exists before you would come to understand that you are a sinner in need of a Savior. (Romans 3:23; 6:23) Repentance precedes belief that saves. *Notice the scriptural order of repent and believe/believe the gospel/faith in our Lord Jesus Christ in (Matthew 21:32; Mark 1:15; Acts 20:21).
I didn't say they were two steps, they should and do come together, and as Paul says, they RESULT IN our receiving salvation. They both must come before salvation is received, thus an action results in salvation being received.
Paul is not talking about believing unto righteousness today (then remaining lost) until you round up a group of folks at Walmart next week and verbally confess Christ to them and then you are finally saved next week. That would turn confession into a work for salvation. But what does it say? “The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart” TOGETHER (that is, the word of faith which we preach). (Romans 10:8) Notice the reverse order from verse 9-10 - that if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. Confess/believe; believe/confess. Not two separate steps to salvation but chronologically together.
And that is what you are doing when you try to separate faith from action (works). That is like trying to take a body without a soul and calling it a living person.
Faith is not actions/works and faith "precedes" actions/good works. Folks who teach salvation by faith + works cannot seem to grasp the difference between faith and works. These folks take both faith and works then wrap them both up in a package and simply stamp faith on the package. Been there, done that prior to my conversion while still attending the Roman Catholic church several years ago.
No, we are already condemned even before we hear anything about the Son. Choosing to believe (give intellectual assent) in the Son is not the act that saves.
We are condemned because of unbelief (John 3:18) and simply choosing to believe "mental assent" in the Son, such as "I believe that Jesus exists and acknowledge that His death, burial and resurrection "happened." Believing in the Son for salvation/trusting in Him as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation is the act that saves. That goes beyond mere "mental assent" belief with the head and reaches the heart.
Rom 10:9-10 says that belief and confession with the mouth lead to receiving salvation.
Quit leaving out verse 8. The word of faith is in our mouth and in our heart TOGETHER. Folks who are mute (cannot speak) would remain lost according to your erroneous interpretation of Romans 10:9,10. You also have another problem. In your 4-step church of Christ plan of salvation, water baptism comes "after" confession so how could confession be unto salvation if you still need to be water baptized "afterwards" in order to be saved? Good luck with that one Houdini.
Acts 2:38 says that repentance and baptism lead to receiving forgiveness of sin (salvation).
Only on the surface. See post #42 from the link below:
Rom 6:1-7 says that baptism it the point at which we die to sin and are united with Jesus' resurrection. Col 2:11-14 says that baptism is the point at which the Holy Spirit cuts our sin from us and unites us with Jesus. 1 Pet 3:21 says that baptism save us by giving us a new conscience. All of these must be true or there is a contradiction in Scripture, and I trust that we both agree there is no chance of that.
More eisegesis on your part. See post #378 from the link below: We've had this discussion before.
That is exactly how Scripture defines faith, so why are you fighting against God?
It's you who re-defines faith to "include" works which culminates in salvation by faith + works and renders Christ an IN-sufficient Savior. It's you who is fighting against God. (Romans 4:2-6; 11:6; Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9 etc..). You refuse to believe the gospel.
There are certainly many works of obedience that come after salvation is received. But there are three that Scripture says come before it is received.
Changing your mind and choosing to believe the gospel with the word of faith in your mouth and heart TOGETHER is not works salvation.
If you don't obey Him, then you really don't trust Him. If you don't trust Him, He cannot and will not save you.
If you don't obey the gospel (Romans 10:16) by choosing to believe the gospel (Romans 1:16) by trusting in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of your salvation (1 Corinthians 15:1-4) then you don't really trust in Him for salvation, and He cannot save you. (2 Corinthians 4:3,4) The act of obedience that saves is choosing to believe the gospel. Not to be confused with multiple acts of obedience/works which follow.
The Bible defines faith as mental assent and the actions that it causes, both combined into one concept.
False. You are still re-defining faith to "includes" works. Roman Catholics, Mormons and other works-salvationists make the same mistake. Faith does result in actions appropriate to the belief (all genuine believers are fruitful, but not all are equally fruitful - Matthew 13:23) yet the actions are not inherent in the belief. You are trying to "shoehorn" works "into" salvation through faith, not works, but the shoe doe
They are like the sides of a coin. You cannot have one without the other
You just described repentance and faith but not faith and works. Faith has an origin and works follow and are produced "out of" faith. That does not make works the very essence of faith. This is a huge stumbling block for works-salvationists.
Based on human reason, you are correct. And that is exactly what God said would happen with human reason, it fails to see and understand God's plan and purpose.
Those who teach salvation by faith + works fail to see and understand God's plan and purpose and there is a reason for that. (1 Coirnthians 1:18-21; 2:11-14)
Moral SELF-REFORMATION is meaningless, but turning toward and throwing oneself on the mercy of God leads to forgiveness.
We see that example in the parable of the Pharisee and the tax collector. (Luke 18:9-14)
LIP SERVICE CONFESSION is meaningless, but a heartfelt, public, verbal confess of Jesus as Lord results in salvation.
1 Corinthians 12:3 - Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking by the Spirit of God calls Jesus accursed, and no one can say that Jesus is Lord except BY the Holy Spirit. There is divine influence or direct operation of the Holy Spirit in the heart of a person when confessing Jesus as Lord. This confession is not just a simple acknowledgment that Jesus is the Lord (even the demons believe that), but is a deep, personal conviction from the heart that Jesus is that person's Lord and Savior. If we lack saving faith in Christ, then confession is simply lip service.
Being immersed in H2O would just get one wet (as it does when one takes a bath or goes swimming), but doing so trusting that Jesus will do as He said He would results in the Holy Spirit cutting sin from us, dying to sin, being raised to new life, and being united to the Body of Christ.
These things are signified but not procured in water baptism. Remember, a symbol is not the reality but is simply a picture of the reality.
Scripture places belief before repentance. Acts 2:37-38 shows that the men of Jerusalem believed (were pricked to the heart) before they were told to repent.
Mental assent belief. In Acts 2:37, their "belief" at this point was "mental assent" that Jesus was the Messiah, and they were guilty of crucifying Him. That is not saving belief yet. They still needed to repent (change their mind) about Jesus further which would culminate in believing in/trusting in Jesus Christ alone for salvation. This is why Peter told them to repent in the following verse.
Acts 26:18 says that Jesus sent Paul (Saul at the time) to go and help people believe so that they will turn from wickedness (repent). "I am sending you, to open their eyes so that they may turn from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins"
When we repent {change our mind) and believe the gospel (trust in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation) we are turned from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God.
Did Naaman trust in Jordan to remove his leprosy? No, he trusted in the words of his servant, who trusted in God that the prophet served. It is the same with us.
Again, Naaman received healing from leprosy and not remission of sins in the Jordan River.
I do not trust in baptism for salvation,
Yes, you do. You trust in accomplishing the act of getting water baptized in order to be saved. I trust in Jesus Christ alone for salvation. His finished work of redemption is sufficient and complete to save believers. (Romans 3:24-28) No supplements needed.
I trust in Jesus who commanded baptism as the point at which I will receive His salvation.
You trust in your eisegesis in regard to what Jesus commanded. John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
That is not what Jesus says. He commanded the Apostles to do the baptizing (Matt 28:19), and He spoke through Peter on Pentecost saying that we are to repent and be baptized in order to receive forgiveness of sin. And He spoke through Peter saying that baptism in water now saves us.
You need to stop reading verses in scripture out of context. I already covered this in post #976 from the link below:

Again, see post #42 from the link below:
They may not be linked in error prone, human writings like dictionaries, but they do because James and the Hebrew writer link them. Faith is the body to action the soul. As the body without the soul is dead, faith without action is dead. Faith is incomplete without action. Faith is evidence (something you can see) and substance (something you can feel).
Faith is the root of salvation and works are the fruit. No fruit at all would demonstrate there is no root. Hopefully that analogy will help you.
 
God considers it a great injustice to punish inability as if it were disobedience, yet Calvinism is BUILT on this injustice, and God's character suffers as a result.


 
It's not a bad translation in the NASB1995 and multiple other translations are in agreement.
I understand, but the fact that multiple other translations agree with the error does not change error into truth. Rendering faith into just "assurance and confidence" waters down the understanding of what faith really is. Sure there is assurance and confidence, but that is not all that faith is. It is active, evident, substantial. Without action faith is dead, not real, not effective, worthless.
Trusting in a false gospel for salvation is not obeying. We obey the gospel (Romans 10:16) by choosing to believe the gospel (Romans 1:16) by trusting in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation. (1 Corinthians 15:1-4)

Without faith it's impossible to please God no matter how much alleged obedience that you set out to accomplish in a vain attempt to obtain salvation by works. (Matthew 7:22-23) If you trust that Jesus' death, burial, and resurrection is sufficient then you will not also be trusting in works for salvation. Jesus, along with Peter and Paul made it clear what is required for forgiveness. (John 3:15,16,18; John 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; Acts 13:38-39; 26:18 etc..).
All of that is true, but not the only action that is required by Scripture. Just choosing to believe does not bring salvation to us. By picking out only those passages that speak of belief and ignoring those passages that tell of other requirements you are negating Scripture and making those other passages out to be lies.
Yes, it is. Faith is established first and then works follow. (Ephesians 2:5-10) We are saved by faith at its origin and not a sometime later, after we accomplish a list of works. Works are the fruit, by product and demonstrative evidence of faith, but not the essence of faith and also not the basis or means by which we obtain salvation.
It is not "some time later" that actions are required. Without action there is no faith to begin with. You can say you believe the Gospel all day long, but until you obey it, you do not receive salvation (1 Thes 1:8). Obeying the Gospel is not accomplished in just "believing" that it is true. It is accomplished in doing what God says "leads to/results in" receiving salvation.
Yes, good works are indeed actions that come AFTER and flow out from having received salvation through faith. (y)

You are confused. Faith is not defined as repentance, confession and baptism. By the time you place repentance "after" faith and re-define it as "moral self-reformation" and you turn confession into a work for salvation "after" faith and baptism into a work for salvation "after" faith you are teaching salvation by works no matter how much you try and sugar coat it.
I am not the one putting those actions before salvation is received, God did.
Rom 10:9-10 - confession with the mouth RESULTS IN receiving salvation.
Acts 2:38 - repentance and baptism RESULT IN receiving salvation.
Acts 3:19 - repentance RESULT IN receiving salvation.
Acts 22:16 - baptism RESULT IN receiving salvation.
1 Pet 3:21 - baptism RESULT IN receiving salvation.
Rom 6:1-7 - salvation received during baptism.
Col 2:11-14 - salvation received during baptism.
That's false. Faith demonstrates that it's alive by works but works are not the source of life in faith. Dead faith does not produce works in order to become a living faith just as a dead tree does not produce fruit in order to become a living tree. You place the cart before the horse.
I am placing nothing before anything. God is the one who said that faith without action is dead. You are arguing against God's command.
In regard to James 2:24, James is not using the word "justified" here to mean "accounted as righteous" but is shown to be righteous. James is discussing the evidence of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God. (Romans 4:2-3)
There is no difference. Either you have faith, which means you have actions that demonstrate your trust and belief, or you just say you have faith, which means you do nothing and really have nothing.
You are trying to redefine "justified" because it does not fit with your preconception. No man is righteous unless he is declared to be righteous by God. James says here that man is justified by God because of works, not just because of faith.
In James 2:26, the comparison of the human spirit and faith converges around their modes of operation. The spirit (Greek pneuma) may also be translated "breath." As a breathless body exhibits no indication of life, so fruitless faith exhibits no indication of life. The source of the life in faith is not works; rather, life in faith is the source of works. (Ephesians 2:5-10) You have it backwards.
That explanation does not fit with the context. How did God make man a living being? He breathed a soul into the body He had made. Without the soul, the body was dead, and when the soul leaves the body, the body returns to death. It is the same with faith. Without action, the body of faith is dead, and if actions leave it, the body of faith returns to death. Without action faith is dead.
More confusion on your part. Man is saved through faith and not by works (Romans 4:5-6; Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9);
Not by works "of the Law". But that does not mean that there are no works that are required at all. Rom 10:9-10 proves that beyond argument.
yet genuine faith is (evidenced) by works. (James 2:14-26) Christ saves us through faith based on the merits of His finished work of redemption "alone" and not based on the merits of our works.
Agreed. There is no merit to a servant who does what his master commands (Luke 17:7-10). But there is no reward to the one who claims to be a servant who does not do what the one he would call master says. If you don't do what He says, He is not really your Master.
You are talking about mere "mental assent" belief. You would need to believe "mental assent" that Jesus exists before you would come to understand that you are a sinner in need of a Savior. (Romans 3:23; 6:23)
Just understanding that you need a savior does not save.
Repentance precedes belief that saves. *Notice the scriptural order of repent and believe/believe the gospel/faith in our Lord Jesus Christ in (Matthew 21:32; Mark 1:15; Acts 20:21).
Repentance precedes salvation, but until you believe that Jesus is the only one who can save you, you have no reason to repent as He commands you to do. As with any math problem involving addition, the order of the components around the addition symbol doesn't matter. It is the same with "and". There is no indication of which comes first in any of these verses.
Paul is not talking about believing unto righteousness today (then remaining lost) until you round up a group of folks at Walmart next week and verbally confess Christ to them and then you are finally saved next week. That would turn confession into a work for salvation. But what does it say? “The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart” TOGETHER (that is, the word of faith which we preach). (Romans 10:8) Notice the reverse order from verse 9-10 - that if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. Confess/believe; believe/confess. Not two separate steps to salvation but chronologically together.
We have been over this many times. Your argument is a distraction from the real issue. Yes, belief and confession come together. And both precede reception of salvation, because they both RESULT IN receiving salvation, as the verse says.
Faith is not actions/works and faith "precedes" actions/good works. Folks who teach salvation by faith + works cannot seem to grasp the difference between faith and works. These folks take both faith and works then wrap them both up in a package and simply stamp faith on the package. Been there, done that prior to my conversion while still attending the Roman Catholic church several years ago.
The roman catholic papist cult is not a Christian Church, so I am glad you got out.
But, as Scripture says, you cannot be saved without believing the Gospel AND repenting of sin AND confessing Jesus as Lord AND being baptized into Christ. These actions, according to Scripture (not according to me) all RESULT IN receiving salvation.
We are condemned because of unbelief (John 3:18) and simply choosing to believe "mental assent" in the Son, such as "I believe that Jesus exists and acknowledge that His death, burial and resurrection "happened." Believing in the Son for salvation/trusting in Him as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation is the act that saves. That goes beyond mere "mental assent" belief with the head and reaches the heart.
Just believing in the heart does not save either. It is certainly required, but it still does not constitute "obedience of the Gospel" according to Scripture. Confessing Jesus as Lord "with the mouth" is still required because it also RESULTS IN receiving salvation, as do repentance and baptism.
Quit leaving out verse 8. The word of faith is in our mouth and in our heart TOGETHER. Folks who are mute (cannot speak) would remain lost according to your erroneous interpretation of Romans 10:9,10.
I am not leaving out verse 8. But it does not change the meaning of verse 10. Yes, the Word is in our mouth and in our heart, and what does it say? "that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation."
That is what the Word of faith is telling us. Just believing in the mind or in the heart by themselves do not bring about salvation. Both are required BEFORE salvation is received. But again, these are not the only verses that speak of actions leading to salvation, and if they are ignored or bypassed then salvation is still not received.
You also have another problem. In your 4-step church of Christ plan of salvation, water baptism comes "after" confession so how could confession be unto salvation if you still need to be water baptized "afterwards" in order to be saved? Good luck with that one Houdini.
Houdini has nothing to do with it. All of NT Scripture is equal, and as such every statement of what leads to salvation is equal. When does Rom 6:1-7 say salvation is received? It says we die to sin in baptism. That in baptism we are united to Jesus' death and resurrection and thus receive salvation. Similarly, Col 2:11-14 says that the Holy Spirit cuts our sin from us in baptism thus resulting in salvation.
Your linked comment was already answered. Repentance and baptism both result in forgiveness of sin. The verse does not say repent so that you sins can be forgiven and then be baptized because you have been forgiven. It says, "Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit." If anything, "be baptized ... for the forgiveness of sins" is the point here. But Acts 3:19 makes the point that repentance is also required, as it also leads to forgiveness (you cannot be forgiven for a sin that you are not repentant of). So both repentance and baptism are required and both lead to forgiveness (salvation).
More eisegesis on your part. See post #378 from the link below: We've had this discussion before.
Yes we have. But you refuse to accept the truth. You have accepted Satan's lie that ignores Scripture's instruction and twists it to leave a person lost in sin.
It's you who re-defines faith to "include" works which culminates in salvation by faith + works and renders Christ an IN-sufficient Savior. It's you who is fighting against God. (Romans 4:2-6; 11:6; Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9 etc..). You refuse to believe the gospel.
I am not redefining faith, simply accepting Scripture's definition: faith without works is dead, and dead faith cannot bring justification.
What does Titus 3:5 says? "He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we did in righteousness, but in accordance with His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit."
We are not saved on the basis of (because of) deeds of righteousness, but because of His mercy. He sent His Son to save us while we were still sinners. But, HOW does that verse say He saves us? "by the washing of regeneration and the renewing by the Holy Spirit. Water and the Spirit, just as John 3:5 says.
Changing your mind and choosing to believe the gospel with the word of faith in your mouth and heart TOGETHER is not works salvation.

If you don't obey the gospel (Romans 10:16) by choosing to believe the gospel (Romans 1:16) by trusting in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of your salvation (1 Corinthians 15:1-4) then you don't really trust in Him for salvation, and He cannot save you. (2 Corinthians 4:3,4) The act of obedience that saves is choosing to believe the gospel. Not to be confused with multiple acts of obedience/works which follow.
That paragraph contradicts Scripture many times over. Believing the Gospel is certainly required, but JUST believing does not fulfill many of the Scriptures that tell us what leads to salvation/justification/forgiveness/eternal life. If you ignore any of them, then you have violated God's will, and do not receive the blessing He offers.
You just described repentance and faith but not faith and works. Faith has an origin and works follow and are produced "out of" faith. That does not make works the very essence of faith. This is a huge stumbling block for works-salvationists.
No, I was talking about faith and works, not faith and just one of the works that Scripture says leads to salvation.
Those who teach salvation by faith + works fail to see and understand God's plan and purpose and there is a reason for that. (1 Coirnthians 1:18-21; 2:11-14)
LOL, It is not I who am confounded by the word of the cross. When you accept all of what Scripture says LEADS TO receiving salvation (as opposed to those actions that FLOW OUT) of it, then you can see clearly what all is required of God before salvation is received.
1 Corinthians 12:3 - Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking by the Spirit of God calls Jesus accursed, and no one can say that Jesus is Lord except BY the Holy Spirit. There is divine influence or direct operation of the Holy Spirit in the heart of a person when confessing Jesus as Lord. This confession is not just a simple acknowledgment that Jesus is the Lord (even the demons believe that), but is a deep, personal conviction from the heart that Jesus is that person's Lord and Savior. If we lack saving faith in Christ, then confession is simply lip service.
Absolutely correct, and that confession LEADS TO receiving salvation. It does not flow out from having already received it. The Holy Spirit works on a person even before he receives salvation. Even the demons believe deep down in their hearts that Jesus is God, but they either cannot or will not act on that belief and throw themselves on His mercy.
These things are signified but not procured in water baptism. Remember, a symbol is not the reality but is simply a picture of the reality.
Not according to Scripture. Rom 6:1-7 says that we die to sin in baptism, and that because we have died to sin we are united to Jesus' resurrection in baptism. Col 2:11-14 says that in baptism the Holy Spirit cuts our sin from us and unites us with Jesus' death and resurrection. This is not just signified, but received in baptism.
Mental assent belief. In Acts 2:37, their "belief" at this point was "mental assent" that Jesus was the Messiah, and they were guilty of crucifying Him. That is not saving belief yet. They still needed to repent (change their mind) about Jesus further which would culminate in believing in/trusting in Jesus Christ alone for salvation. This is why Peter told them to repent in the following verse.
He did not tell them to just repent. He told them to repent AND be baptized so that they could be forgiven. Both together.
When we repent {change our mind) and believe the gospel (trust in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation) we are turned from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God.
Again, that is not all the Scripture says about what turns us from darkness to Light. We must also confess Jesus and be baptized. You keep skipping those Scriptures.
Again, Naaman received healing from leprosy and not remission of sins in the Jordan River.
True, but that is not the comparison I am making. Naaman did not receive cleansing until he did what he was told would result in his cleansing. We do not receive forgiveness/justification/salvation until we do what we have been told will result in those things.
Yes, you do. You trust in accomplishing the act of getting water baptized in order to be saved. I trust in Jesus Christ alone for salvation. His finished work of redemption is sufficient and complete to save believers. (Romans 3:24-28) No supplements needed.
Baptism is not a "supplement". It is what He told us was required to receive His blessing. If we don't do what He said, then we don't receive what He offered.
You trust in your eisegesis in regard to what Jesus commanded. John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
Again, "beleive" in that veres is "pistis" which means faith. It is not just believing, but obeying Jesus (as indicated in verse 36) that is most important.
I have not read any of those passages out of context, as I have already explained.
Is baptism not an act that Jesus commanded the Apostles (and through them, all Christ followers) to perform? Yes, it is whether you want to admit it or not.
Are repentance and baptism both linked and both result in receiving forgiveness? Yes, they are whether you want to admit it or not.
Is the Flood a foreshadowing of baptism that now saves the NT Christ follower? Yes, it is whether you want to admit it or not.
Faith is the root of salvation and works are the fruit. No fruit at all would demonstrate there is no root. Hopefully that analogy will help you.
Not all works are the fruit of faith. Those works that FLOW OUT FROM salvation are the fruit. But there are three actions that Scripture says LEAD TO/RESULT IN salvation, and they are not fruit of faith, but the seeds of it.
 
Whew! It takes a lot "explaining" to make a false teaching seem like it's true.
On the other hand, truth can be given in a few clear sentences:

" ... that to all whom You have given Him, He may give eternal life. This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent." John 17:2-3
Notice Jesus did not say, "that to all whom You have given Him, (if they are baptized)."
Nor did He say, "This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent (if they are baptized)." John 17:3
Of course His disciples had already been baptized, some of them twice- first by John the Baptist, then later, after following Jesus, they most likely baptized each other. John 4:1
But if baptism was required to be saved, Jesus would have mentioned it in the above verses, but He didn't.
There are other things that Jesus mentioned here in John 17 that were also required:
Verse 6 - "and they have kept Your word."
Verse 7 - "Now they have come to know that everything You have given Me is from You."
Verse 8 - "for the words which you gave Me I have given to them; and they received them and truly understood that I came forth from You, and they believed that You sent Me."
Notice there was no physical action required on their part, such as baptism, in order for them to be saved. Otherwise Jesus would have mentioned that.
1 John 5:12 "He who has the Son has the (eternal) life; he who does not have the Son of God does not have the life."
Just having Jesus (that would be the Holy Spirit in us) is having eternal life. No baptism mentioned here either. This would be a huge mistake, if baptism were a requirement.
 
What do you think John the Baptist meant when he said:

“I baptize you with water for repentance. But after me comes one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire.

Are there two baptisms? When we accept Jesus does the first one John is talking about happened to us? And then later on we get water baptized?

 
John identified Jesus as the One who baptizes with the Holy Spirit and fire. However, when Jesus began His ministry at His baptism and began to gain disciples, He had His disciples baptize the new disciples, even though some of them had already been baptized by John.

We know that this baptism by Jesus' disciples was not the baptism in or with the Holy Spirit because Jesus, having already been raised from the dead, specifically identifies the day when that baptism will occur - the Day of Pentecost. Acts 1:4-5 And ,as you have already quoted John the Baptist, Jesus Himself is the One performing that baptism with the Holy Spirit and fire, even though Jesus is not physically present.

John's baptism is gone. It ended when he was thrown in jail and killed. So nobody today gets baptized with John's baptism. When we accept Jesus today, in my opinion, we are baptized by the Holy Spirit into the body of Christ. 1 Cor.12:13 There is no water involved.
"For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, ... and we were all made to drink of one Spirit." It's an invisible baptism, which is also called being born again. Gal.3:27 also mentions it, in my opinion: "For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ." I believe it is also mentioned in Romans 6:3:
"Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into His death?" This does not require water - it is performed by the Holy Spirit to place us spiritually into the body of Christ. I believe Jesus' apostles received this baptism in John 20:22 " ... He breathed on them and said to them, 'Receive the Holy Spirit." This is NOT the same as the baptism of the Holy Spirit on the Day of Pentecost because Jesus is the One who performs that baptism.

So the Holy Spirit baptizes us into Christ - that is, we are born again. Then there is another invisible baptism for Christians who desire it - that is the baptism in the Holy Spirit performed by Jesus, which also requires no water. Acts 2:4 also calls it by another name - "being filled with the Holy Spirit" or "receiving the Holy Spirit" or "the Spirit was bestowed". Other Biblical terms for it are: where the Holy Spirit falls upon them or comes upon them. Some believers have actually experienced both of these baptisms at the same time, as happened to Cornelius and his family. In just about every case in the Bible, those who receive this baptism either spoke in tongues or prophesied or both. The only possible exception to that, that I know of, is in Acts 8:14-24, where Philip preached to the Samaritans and they believed and were baptized in water, but the Holy Spirit "had not yet fallen upon any of them". Later when the apostles laid hands on them, they were receiving the Holy Spirit. However, there is no mention of them speaking in tongues or prophesying but we do know that Simon "saw that the Spirit was bestowed through the laying on of the apostle's hands". But how could he see anything, since this was also an invisible baptism? Well, apparently he saw them speaking in tongues or prophesying or both, as was true of the other cases in Acts.

A third baptism which can and should happen ASAP after being born again, is water baptism.
 
John identified Jesus as the One who baptizes with the Holy Spirit and fire. However, when Jesus began His ministry at His baptism and began to gain disciples, He had His disciples baptize the new disciples, even though some of them had already been baptized by John.

We know that this baptism by Jesus' disciples was not the baptism in or with the Holy Spirit because Jesus, having already been raised from the dead, specifically identifies the day when that baptism will occur - the Day of Pentecost. Acts 1:4-5 And ,as you have already quoted John the Baptist, Jesus Himself is the One performing that baptism with the Holy Spirit and fire, even though Jesus is not physically present.

John's baptism is gone. It ended when he was thrown in jail and killed. So nobody today gets baptized with John's baptism. When we accept Jesus today, in my opinion, we are baptized by the Holy Spirit into the body of Christ. 1 Cor.12:13 There is no water involved.
"For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, ... and we were all made to drink of one Spirit." It's an invisible baptism, which is also called being born again. Gal.3:27 also mentions it, in my opinion: "For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ." I believe it is also mentioned in Romans 6:3:
"Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into His death?" This does not require water - it is performed by the Holy Spirit to place us spiritually into the body of Christ. I believe Jesus' apostles received this baptism in John 20:22 " ... He breathed on them and said to them, 'Receive the Holy Spirit." This is NOT the same as the baptism of the Holy Spirit on the Day of Pentecost because Jesus is the One who performs that baptism.

So the Holy Spirit baptizes us into Christ - that is, we are born again. Then there is another invisible baptism for Christians who desire it - that is the baptism in the Holy Spirit performed by Jesus, which also requires no water. Acts 2:4 also calls it by another name - "being filled with the Holy Spirit" or "receiving the Holy Spirit" or "the Spirit was bestowed". Other Biblical terms for it are: where the Holy Spirit falls upon them or comes upon them. Some believers have actually experienced both of these baptisms at the same time, as happened to Cornelius and his family. In just about every case in the Bible, those who receive this baptism either spoke in tongues or prophesied or both. The only possible exception to that, that I know of, is in Acts 8:14-24, where Philip preached to the Samaritans and they believed and were baptized in water, but the Holy Spirit "had not yet fallen upon any of them". Later when the apostles laid hands on them, they were receiving the Holy Spirit. However, there is no mention of them speaking in tongues or prophesying but we do know that Simon "saw that the Spirit was bestowed through the laying on of the apostle's hands". But how could he see anything, since this was also an invisible baptism? Well, apparently he saw them speaking in tongues or prophesying or both, as was true of the other cases in Acts.

A third baptism which can and should happen ASAP after being born again, is water baptism.
Thanks for answering my question. I never knew there were three. But now that I stop and think about it I can see what you're saying.
 
OP: he that believes and is not water baptized?:

Previous Bible study concluded, Under Grace: There Is Only One, Repeat ONE [ Spiritual ] Baptism
by Scripturally Comparing these Three Bible Baptisms:

In God's Context Of Prophecy/Covenants/Law for ISRAEL, Yesterday!:

►►► The Twelve Were Sent to {water} baptize! ◄◄◄

The TWO Main ( of 12 ) baptisms:

A) water, For remission of sins/induction into Israeli "priesthood!":
(Matthew_3:5-6; Mark_1:4; Luke_3:3; John_1:31; Esp: Luke 7:29-30; Acts_10:37)
(Matthew_28:19; Mark_16:16; Acts_2:38, 22:16; Ezekiel_36:25; Isaiah 52:15)

+

B) WITH The Holy Spirit, Poured Out By CHRIST, for power, signs And wonders!
(Isaiah_44:3; Matthew_3:11; Mark_1:8, 16:17-18;
Luke_24:49; Acts_2:17-18, 38, 8:15-17, 11:16)

Prophecy / Covenants / Law for twelve tribes of Israel!

Rightly Divided (2 Timothy 2:15) From “Things That Differ
[ ↑ Means NOT To Be "Mixed Up" With ]:

In God's Other Distinctive Context Of Mystery / GRACE! (Romans - Philemon) =

our "One apostle to the Gentiles" for The One Body Of CHRIST, Today!:

►►► Paul Was Not Sent to {water} baptize! Why Not?: ◄◄◄

Today:

Only One Baptism = "BY" The One Spirit = God's Operation,
Spiritually Identifying members In (The One Body Of) Christ!
(Ephesians 4:5; Colossians_2:12; Galatians_3:27;
Romans_6:3-4; 1 Corinthians 12:13 KJB)

Conclusion: God's ONE Baptism Today? = ONE

Or, Equals two? = water problem with God's Math! Correct?

---------------------------------------------------------------------
Update: Bible reading recently Discovered This Amazing Passage for ISRAEL, Under the law:

"When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and​
baptized more disciples than John, ( Though Jesus Himself baptized not, but his disciples, )"​
(John 4:1-2 AV)​

Q: Where in Paul's Scriptures for The Body Of Christ, Under Grace, can we find a Similar statement that
we can Actually interpret as baptismal regenerationists/protestants like think about: "Paul was NOT sent
to baptize (1 Corinthians 1:17 AV),

BUT all the other Grace apostles/preachers WERE SENT to baptize", then making TWO baptisms,
Under God's Grace, Today!

Please advise, Where Exactly is this kind of "commission" found in God's Holy Word Of Truth, Rightly
Divided?


Amen.
 
Whew! It takes a lot "explaining" to make a false teaching seem like it's true.
On the other hand, truth can be given in a few clear sentences:

" ... that to all whom You have given Him, He may give eternal life. This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent." John 17:2-3
Notice Jesus did not say, "that to all whom You have given Him, (if they are baptized)."
Nor did He say, "This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent (if they are baptized)." John 17:3
Of course His disciples had already been baptized, some of them twice- first by John the Baptist, then later, after following Jesus, they most likely baptized each other. John 4:1
But if baptism was required to be saved, Jesus would have mentioned it in the above verses, but He didn't.
No, He didn't need to mention it in those verses. Not nearly all of what Jesus taught was recorded. Much of what He taught was not recorded until the Apostles wrote it in Acts or in the epistles. Just because it was not recorded does not mean it was not taught. John had already recorded in John 3:5 that Jesus said only those born of water and the Spirit will enter the Kingdom of God. So only those baptized (born of water) into Christ where the Spirit removes their sin and resurrects their spirit (born of the Spirit) are part of the Kingdom of God.
There are other things that Jesus mentioned here in John 17 that were also required:
Verse 6 - "and they have kept Your word."
Verse 7 - "Now they have come to know that everything You have given Me is from You."
Verse 8 - "for the words which you gave Me I have given to them; and they received them and truly understood that I came forth from You, and they believed that You sent Me."
Notice there was no physical action required on their part, such as baptism, in order for them to be saved. Otherwise Jesus would have mentioned that.
Here there is no physical action, but that doesn't mean that there are not physical actions required in other passages. Is John 17:6-8 more God's Word than Rom 10:9-10, or Acts 2:38? No. All of Scripture is equally God's inspired Word. It must all be taken together, not parsing out a few verses that say what you already think, and ignoring passages that say what you don't already think. This seems to be a big problem for you. Because it seems that you think that just because a passage talks about salvation but doesn't mention baptism, or repentance, but only "believe", that this is the only thing required. That would be like saying that the only thing written on the cross as a charge against Jesus was "King of the Jews", as it says in Mark 15:26. But John tells us that it said, "Jesus of Nazareth, King of the Jews", in Greek, Latin, and Hebrew. Is John wrong because he included details that Mark did not? No. Nor is Mark wrong because he left details out. We cannot take Mark's account as the end of the story and ignore the details we find in John just because we don't like what John tells us. Nor can we ignore the passages that tell us that repentance, confession of Jesus, and baptism are required for salvation.
1 John 5:12 "He who has the Son has the (eternal) life; he who does not have the Son of God does not have the life."
Just having Jesus (that would be the Holy Spirit in us) is having eternal life. No baptism mentioned here either. This would be a huge mistake, if baptism were a requirement.
Whoever has the Son, has life. So how do you receive the Son/Holy Spirit? Acts 2:38 says that receiving the Holy Spirit is the result of repentance and being baptized. Eph 5:27 says that those who have been baptized into Christ have been clothed with Christ.
 
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