Naaman did not receive forgiveness of sin from dipping in Jordan. He was not promised remission of sin by dipping in Jordan.
Amen! So, water baptism is not a good parallel to support your argument pertaining to water baptism.
He was promised remission of leprosy (another disease that is impossible for man to cure, even today). The reference to him is not in what was cleansed, but in the obedience that was required to receive it. The same is true with the widow who baked her last cake for the prophet and her oil and flour did not run out until the end of the famine. The same it true of the widow who poured the oil into every jar she could find to pay her debts and keep her son from slavery. The same is true of the Israelites taking of the Promised Land starting with the fall of the walls of Jericho (and there is no water in any of those stories). It is not the water, but the obedience to God in what He commands that is essential.
Don't confuse receiving blessings with receiving eternal salvation.
If Jesus is your Lord, then you will obey His commandments. If you do not obey His commandments, then He is not your Lord.
He commanded that His Apostles (and through them, all other disciples of His) baptize (Matt 28:19). He said that those who are baptized will be saved (Mark 16:16). He told us through His Apostle's writings that baptism saves us (1 Pet 3:21), that we die to sin and are resurrected with Christ through baptism (Rom 6:1-7), that our sin is cut from us and we are united to Christ through baptism (Col 2:11-14), and that no one will enter the Kingdom of God (be saved) except through being born again by water and the Spirit (John 3:5).
Have you flawlessly obeyed all of His commandments? Do you claim to be sinless, without fault or defect, flawless, 24/7? Believers "keep" (Greek word "tereo" - guard, observe, watch over) the commandments BECAUSE we know Him and not in order to know Him. 1 John 2:3 - By this
we know that we have come to know Him, (already know Him/already saved/demonstrative evidence) if we "keep" (Greek word "tereo" - guard, observe, watch over) His commandments. (This is descriptive of genuine believers) 4 The one who
says, “I have come to know Him,” and
does not keep (guard, observe, watch over) His commandments,
is a liar, and the truth is not in him. (That is descriptive of unbelievers)
Strong's Greek: 5083. τηρέω (téreó) -- to watch over, to guard (biblehub.com)
In Matthew 28:19, we have here a command from Jesus to go and make disciples of all nations and baptize them. However, it does not say here that baptism is absolutely necessary for salvation. In verse 20, Jesus goes on to say, "and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you." Baptism and obeying everything Jesus has commanded "follows" having become disciples.
In Luke 7:29, we read - When all the people and the tax collectors heard this, they justified God/acknowledged God's justice,
(signified by) having been baptized with the baptism of John. 30 But the Pharisees and the lawyers rejected God's purpose for themselves,
(signified by) not having been baptized by John. Water baptism did not make them become disciples, but their decision to become disciples was
signified in baptism.
Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved
(general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who
does not believe will be condemned.
The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely necessary for salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief and not on a lack of baptism. *NOWHERE does the Bible say, "baptized or condemned."
If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then we would expect Jesus to mention it in the following verses. (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) Yet what is the 1 requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements *
BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
John 3:18 - He who
believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO)
does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO)
because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
In 1 Peter 3:21, Peter tells us that baptism now saves you, yet when Peter uses this phrase,
he continues in the same sentence to explain exactly what he means by it. He said that baptism now saves you-
not the removal of dirt from the flesh (that is, not as an outward, physical act which washes dirt from the body--that is not what saves you),
"but an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (that is, as an inward, spiritual transaction between God and the individual, a transaction that is
symbolized by the outward ceremony of water baptism).
Just as the eight people in the ark were "saved
THROUGH water" as they were
IN THE ARK. They were not literally saved "by" the water. Hebrews 11:7 is clear on this point (..built an
ARK for the
SAVING of his household). The context reveals that ONLY the righteous (Noah and his family) were
DRY and therefore
SAFE. In contrast,
ONLY the wicked in Noah's day
came in contact with the water and they all perished.
In regard to Colossians 2:11-14, circumcision made without hands is of the heart, by the Spirit (Romans 2:29) just as Spirit baptism is. Paul clearly teaches that what is
signified in baptism (buried and raised with Christ) actually occurs
"through faith." Christians are "buried with Him in baptism, in which you also were raised with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead." (Colossians 2:12) What is
signified in water baptism is not procured in water baptism. Justification on account of union in Christ's death, burial and resurrection is brought about
"through faith" - and is properly
symbolized by immersing the new believer in and out of the water.
In John 3:5, Jesus said born of water and the Spirit. He
did not say born of baptism and the Spirit and He also did not say unless one is water baptized, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. In the very next chapter, Jesus mentions "living water" in John 4:10, 14 and and He
connects living water with eternal life in John 4:14. Also, in John 7:38-39, we read - "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said,
out of his heart will flow rivers of
living water. But this He spoke
concerning the Spirit. Did you see that? The Holy Spirit is the
source of living water (which reaches the heart)
and spiritual cleansing.
If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again. Also "water" is used in the Bible as an
emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is
associated with cleansing or washing. (John 15:3; Ephesians 5:26) When we are born again, the Holy Spirit begets new life, so that we are said to become "partakers of the divine nature." (2 Peter 1:4) The new birth is brought to pass through "incorruptible seed, by the word of God, which lives and abides forever" (I Peter 1:23) and the Holy Spirit accomplishes the miracle of regeneration. (Titus 3:5) So, to automatically read "baptism" into John 3:5 simply because it mentions "water" is
unwarranted.