Greetings Doug,
Actually, my posts are
far short of most men's ability who know the truth~whatever convincing arguments presented by any man, come through knowing the truth, for the scriptures have
so much more to provide any student of the scriptures, on any subject than most of us are able to locate, and after seeing truth to retain all of it. At almost seventy six years old, I have trouble remembering and retaining what I once could remember and retain.
Doug, it is very consistent with the word of God, maybe even more so than what I teach. I have heard this many times over in the past fifty years.......
But … does not the Bible teach that God is love?
Yes, the Bible teaches that God is love in
Ist John 4:8 and
Ist John 4:16. But these words
do not prove (1) God is
only love, (2) God loves all men, (3) God loves any man, (4) God loves you, (5) how long God loves, or (6) just about anything else you imagine.
It simply and only teaches that one characteristic of God is that He loves, and He does love. But He is also holy and righteous, which John introduced first in this very epistle (
Ist John 1:5). While God is love, God cannot love sin or sinners, as we proved above.
But … particular love makes God unfair, cruel, and a respecter of persons?
Paul knew long ago
man in the flesh would raise this objection. His answer? God forbid (
Romans 9:14-24)! Man do not even understand their own objection, for how is it respect of persons to choose to love someone for nothing in them whatsoever, but altogether contrary to what is in them? How does it make God unfair? Because He does not love all? Do all deserve love? We are sinful rebels, why must He love us? He is unfair by loving any, which is why it is called grace! If folks are so concerned about the character of God, why not argue for God loving the devil?
God hates sin and sinners because He is holy.
God is holy, and His absolutely holy nature requires that He hate sin wherever He finds it. The definition of true holiness and righteousness includes hatred for sin (
Psalms 45:7;
Hebrews 1:9). The great God is of purer eyes than to behold evil or look on iniquity approvingly (
Hab 1:13). Jesus Christ, the Son of God, is holy … undefiled … and separate from sinners (
Hebrews 7:26). God is so pure in His holiness that angelic sin was not accepted in His sight (
Job 15:14-16). Any man who truly fears and loves God will hate sin with Him (
Proverbs 8:13;
Psalms 45:7;
Hebrews 1:9). God’s holiness requires that He hate sin (
Psalm 5:4-6;
53:5;
73:20;
Proverbs 6:16-19;
Zechariah 8:17). SO much more could be said~but enough for now on this point.
Much more could be said, but I must move on.
Doug, I agree that all of the word of God is for all of God's children, no problem there on my part. 1st Corinthians 10:11....
Yet John the apostles was a minister to the circumcision~per Galatians 2:9
John wrote unto the circumcision. So, my position is valid, and supported by the scriptures. Besides, many other scriptures demands that interpretation, for Jesus Christ did not paid for the sins of all men. Consider John Owens' unanswerable consideration concerning Christ's death.:
"God imposed his wrath due unto, and Christ died for, either
(1) all the sins of all men, or
(2) all the sins of some men, or
(3) some sins of all men.
If the last, some sins of all men, then have all men some sins to answer for, and so shall no man be saved;
If the second, that is it which we affirm, that Christ in their stead and room suffered for all the sins of all the elect in the world.
If the first, why, then, are not all freed from the punishment of all their sins? You will say, “Because of their unbelief; they will not believe.” But this unbelief, is it a sin or not? If not, why should they be punished for it? If it be, then Christ underwent the punishment due to it, or not. If so, then why must that hinder them more than their other sins for which he died from partaking of the fruit of his death? If he did not, then did he not die for all their sins. Let them choose which part they will.