Easily dispelling unitarianism

101G said:
since you're Interested in 101G, then here he is, Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he." JUST AS THE "WORD" IS "WITH" GOD IN JOHN 1:1.

DO YOU UNDERSTAND THIS MYSTERY? WELL THIS IS WHAT 101G IS ALL ABOUT.... :D YIKES!.

DO YOU UNDERSTAND THIS MYSYERY? YES OR NO?

101G.
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Is that all there is to 101G?
 
Matthias said:
If that’s all there is, no.
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NO? ..... you don't KNOW? that means there is more to 101G than meets the EYE. let 101G help you out. the "LORD", who is Father states he is the "FIRST" and WITH the "LAST", Correct. now watch the MYSTERY DEEPENS and at the same time is REVEALED. Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last."
the ONE GOD who is FIRST, is ALSO, ALSO, ALSO, the Last, the Lord. and ALSO means, "in addition too". .... (smile).

did you get the revelation?

101G.
 
101G said:
NO? ..... you don't KNOW? that means there is more to 101G than meets the EYE. let 101G help you out. the "LORD", who is Father states he is the "FIRST" and WITH the "LAST", Correct. now watch the MYSTERY DEEPENS and at the same time is REVEALED. Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last."
the ONE GOD who is FIRST, is ALSO, ALSO, ALSO, the Last, the Lord. and ALSO means, "in addition too". .... (smile).

did you get the revelation?

101G.
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No. You’ll need to dumb it down for me.

The one God in my theology is the God and Father of Jesus of Nazareth.
 
Matthias said:
What do you mean biologically? Are you asking if I believe the Father engaged in sexual intercourse with the virgin?
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What do you mean biologically? just that. are looking at the Father and Son as biologically Father and Son?

101G.
 
101G said:
What do you mean biologically? just that. are looking at the Father and Son as biologically Father and Son?

101G.
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What I see is that the Father beget the Son in the womb of the virgin by the overshadowing of his spirit. In other words, a supernatural begetting and conception.
 
Matthias said:
What I see is that the Father beget the Son in the womb of the virgin by the overshadowing of his spirit. In other words, a supernatural begetting and conception.
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I started not to answer that, but we must meet people where they are. The Father begot? well you just destroyed one of your person(s) in the trinity, for the ONE who conceived the Child in Mary is the Holy Ghost. Matthew 1:20 "But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost"

"of the Holy Ghost." if you speak biologically then the Holy Spirit is the Father. is not the conceiver the father?

and two how did he beget that child? a supernatural begetting and conception..... lol, lol, lol, Oh dear.

Good day

101G.
 
101G said:
I started not to answer that, but we must meet people where they are.
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Thank you for answering. I love your point about meeting people where they are.


101G said:
The Father begot? well you just destroyed one of your person(s) in the trinity, for the ONE who conceived the Child in Mary is the Holy Ghost. Matthew 1:20 "But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost"

"of the Holy Ghost." if you speak biologically then the Holy Spirit is the Father. is not the conceiver the father?

and two how did he beget that child? a supernatural begetting and conception..... lol, lol, lol, Oh dear.

Good day

101G.
Click to expand...

I’m a Jewish monotheist; a unitarian, not a trinitarian.

Begetting is what fathers do. Conceiving is what mothers do.

The begetter of Jesus is the Father. The conceiver of Jesus is the virgin.

The Father beget that child by the power of his spirit.
 
101G said:
Matthew 1:20 "But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost"
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“and Joseph her husband being righteous, and not willing to make her an example, did wish privately to send her away. And on his thinking of these things, lo, a messenger of the Lord in a dream appeared to him, saying, ‘Joseph, son of David, thou mayest not fear to receive Mary thy wife, for that which in her was begotten [is] of the Holy Spirit, and she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus, for he shall save his people from their sins.’”

(Matthew 1:19-21, YLT)

www.biblegateway.com

Bible Gateway passage: Matthew 1:19-21 - Young's Literal Translation

and Joseph her husband being righteous, and not willing to make her an example, did wish privately to send her away. And on his thinking of these things, lo, a messenger of the Lord in a dream appeared to him, saying, `Joseph, son of David, thou mayest not fear to receive Mary thy wife, for that...
www.biblegateway.com www.biblegateway.com
 
Matthias said:
I’m a Jewish monotheist; a unitarian, not a trinitarian.

Begetting is what fathers do. Conceiving is what mothers do.

The begetter of Jesus is the Father. The conceiver of Jesus is the virgin.

The Father beget that child by the power of his spirit.
Click to expand...
well you missed the point. and what I said.

YOU SAID, "Begetting is what fathers do. Conceiving is what mothers do." can a father beget without a mother? and can a woman conceive without a man?

the Father is "Spirit".

101G.
 
101G said:
well you missed the point. and what I said.

YOU SAID, "Begetting is what fathers do. Conceiving is what mothers do." can a father beget without a mother? and can a woman conceive without a man?
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A father cannot beget without a mother. Normally, a woman cannot conceive without a man. In the case of Jesus, a woman conceived without a man.

101G said:
the Father is "Spirit".

101G.
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And ”Love”.
 
101G said:
good, one question, is the "Lord" in Psalms 110:1 the same one Person as the "LORD", all caps in verse 1. your answer please.

101G.
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No. It is not the same one person.

In the first place, “Lord” is incorrect. The proper rendering is “lord”. The Hebrew word is adoni, which occurs 195 times in the OT. My workhorse translation of the Bible is the NASB. It gets it right 194 out of 195 times. The 1 occurrence it gets wrong is found in Psalm 110:1. I wrote a letter to the Lockman Foundation about the error. They wrote me back and said that I was correct and that they would correct it. (It is correct in many English translations.) To date, it has not been corrected in NASB.

In the second place, Yahweh (LORD) is speaking prophetically in the oracle to an unnamed person. It isn’t until we get to the NT that we find out that the unnamed person is identified as Jesus of Nazareth.
 
Just for fun, here is a survey of English translations for Psalm 110:1.

www.biblegateway.com

Psalm 110:1 - Bible Gateway

www.biblegateway.com www.biblegateway.com

Most of the translations are incorrect when translating the Hebrew. They translate it as if it were adonai (Lord). Anyone who can read vowelled Hebrew will see instantly that the Hebrew word is actually adoni (lord), not adonai (Lord).

Yahweh is addressing adoni. Yahweh is not addressing adonai.

Here is an example of a correct translation showing both the correct Hebrew and the correct English translation side by side:

 
Once more, just for fun.

This is from the Interlinear on Bible Hub:


Note that the Hebrew word is clearly and correctly identified as adoni.

But look at the English rendering. It’s incorrect. The Interlinear is telling us that the Hebrew word is adonai. The standard English rendering of adonai is “Lord.“ The standard English rendering of adoni is “lord.”

The Interlinear is, in this case, misleading us.
 
One final point - at least for now - about Psalm 110:1. Yahweh is speaking “to my lord.” Yahweh is not speaking “to my Yahweh.”
 
Matthias said:
No. It is not the same one person.
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GINOLJC, to all.
your first ERROR of the day. God the Holy Spirit, the ordinal First, is the Father. and he, the Holy Spirit, is The Son, the Ordinal Last. the First is the Last. supportive scripture. Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." the First and the Last is the SAME one PERSON...... you're REPROVED.
Matthias said:
In the first place, “Lord” is incorrect. The proper rendering is “lord”.
Click to expand...
second ERROR of the Day. the "Lord" in verse 1 of Psalms 110 is correct, and here's why? LISTEN AND LEARN. the same "Lord" in verse 1 is the same "Lord" in verse 5. Psalms 110:5 "The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath."

the same "Lord" ..... at the "LORD" right is the same "Lord" in verse 1, let's see it.
Lord: H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113
emphatic form of H113, YES, of the "Lord" in verse 1. ..... (smile). the same one PERSON. not only is it the emphatic form of H113, but it's ROOT.... B.A.M. BAM, BAM.

Now do you know NOW why the KJV translate it as "Lord?" NOW, ... (smile).... :unsure:. 101G know why. if you want to know, just ask.
Matthias said:
In the second place, Yahweh (LORD) is speaking prophetically in the oracle to an unnamed person. It isn’t until we get to the NT that we find out that the unnamed person is identified as Jesus of Nazareth.
Click to expand...
THIRD ERROR of the Day. this is the LORD/Lord JESUS/YESHUA Speaking in both places..... (smile)

101G.
 

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