Did Jesus Shed His Humanity at the Ascension?

And I'd say seeing him as he is has to do with seeing him in his full statue of maturity and wisdom. We see,

"Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, (or a mature man) unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ: Eph 4:13

That's what I think it means when we see him as he is.....in other words we get the true perspective of what he is in teaching or wisdom. At this point in time people struggle in life with just what truth is.....we have different denominations etc.....we see through a glass darkly now....but then all will see the exact truth seeing God as he is.

1 Cor 13 says the same....when that which is perfect is come. In other words seeing him as he is has nothing to do with Jesus physical appearance but we see him as he is in truth. So our good friend Seth here is trying to think it's all about what Jesus appearance is.

1 John 3:23 has nothing to do with that. We already know what his appearance is as we know it was what Thomas and the other disciples saw after his resurrection. Luke 24:39 That didn't change nor ever will. Sad that some refuse to see this. His statement is not about ourdelevelopment
but it says we will se him when he comes back.. His statemwnt is not about our development. It means that no one has yet seen Him as He is, Why change or spiritualize His words when they are already clear? 1 John 3:2
 
but it says we will se him when he comes back.. His statemwnt is not about our development. It means that no one has yet seen Him as He is, Why change or spiritualize His words when they are already clear? 1 John 3:2
how can we see the invisible since you claim He is invisible ?

fyi- nowhere in scripture does it say Jesus is invisible but Jesus said the Father is invisible and no man has seen the Father.

so you have a dilemma
 
But as it is written: "Eye has not seen, nor ear heard, Nor have entered into the heart of man The things which God has prepared for those who love Him." (1 Cor. 2:9 NKJ)
 
But as it is written: "Eye has not seen, nor ear heard, Nor have entered into the heart of man The things which God has prepared for those who love Him." (1 Cor. 2:9 NKJ)
The things in the passage were hidden until the N.T. and revealed to believers through the Spirit.

the object of the apostle is not to describe the future state of the redeemed. It is to prove that those who are Christians have true wisdom 1 Corinthians 2:6-7; or that they have views of truth, and of the excellence of the plan of salvation which the world has not, and which those who crucified the Lord Jesus did not possess. The thing which he is describing here, is not merely the happiness of Christians, but their views of the wisdom of the plan of salvation. They have views of that which the eyes of other people have not seen; a view of wisdom, and fitness, and beauty which can be found in no other plan. It is true that this view is attended with a high degree of comfort; but the comfort is not the immediate thing in the eye of the apostle.

the declaration in 1 Corinthians 2:10, is conclusive proof that Paul does not refer to the happiness of heaven. He there says that God has revealed these things to Christians by his Spirit. But if already revealed, assuredly it does not refer to that which is yet to come. But although this does not refer directly to heaven, there may be an application of the passage to a future state in an indirect manner, which is not improper. If there are such manifestations of wisdom in the plan here; if Christians see so much of its beauty here on earth; and if their views so far surpass all that the world sees and enjoys, how much greater and purer will be the manifestations of wisdom and goodness in the world of glory.

Eye hath not seen - This is the same as saying, that no one had ever fully perceived and understood the value and beauty of those things which God has prepared for his people. All the world had been strangers to this until God made a revelation to his people by his Spirit. The blessedness which the apostle referred to had been unknown alike to the Jews and the Gentiles.

Nor ear heard - We learn the existence and quality of objects by the external senses; and those senses are used to denote any acquisition of knowledge. To say that the eye had not seen, nor the ear heard, was, therefore, the same as saying that it was not known at all. All people had been ignorant of it. Neither have entered into the heart of man - No man has conceived it; or understood it. It is new; and is above all that man has seen, and felt, and known. barnes

hope this helps !!!
 
how can we see the invisible since you claim He is invisible ?

fyi- nowhere in scripture does it say Jesus is invisible but Jesus said the Father is invisible and no man has seen the Father.

so you have a dilemma
how can we see the invisible? We will be dead when that happens. We wiil have joined the inisible world
Jesus is invisble there to ths world, not to people in that realm
 
how can we see the invisible? We will be dead when that happens. We wiil have joined the inisible world
Jesus is invisble there to ths world, not to people in that realm
no Jesus appeared to Paul years after His Physical Ascension and He saw your invisible jesus in the flesh, bodily.

And last of all He ( JESUS ) appeared to me ( Paul ). Read about it in 1 Corinthians 15.

hope this helps !!!
 
But as it is written: "Eye has not seen, nor ear heard, Nor have entered into the heart of man The things which God has prepared for those who love Him." (1 Cor. 2:9 NKJ)

Why only share verse #9?

1Co 2:10 But God hath revealed them unto us by his Spirit: for the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things of God.

It is this type of selective quoting that drives false beliefs.

Faith isn't blind..... The faithful see what others can not see. Sight isn't solely based upon the eyes. Moses endured as SEEING...

Heb 11:27 By faith he forsook Egypt, not fearing the wrath of the king: for he endured, as seeing him who is invisible.
 
It is this type of selective quoting that drives false beliefs.

Lol.

You'd dig up a false slanderous motive to someone if you had to journey to the far ends of Tibet, wouldn't you.

My bad, I'll post the ENTIRE BIBLE with EVERY SINGLE VERSE, since otherwise it is "selective."

Obviously you are "driving false beliefs" by leaving off verse 9 and 12.
 
Lol.

You'd dig up a false slanderous motive to someone if you had to journey to the far ends of Tibet, wouldn't you.

My bad, I'll post the ENTIRE BIBLE with EVERY SINGLE VERSE, since otherwise it is "selective."

Obviously you are "driving false beliefs" by leaving off verse 9 and 12.
did you read my response #424 ?
 
no Jesus appeared to Paul years after His Physical Ascension and He saw your invisible jesus in the flesh, bodily.

And last of all He ( JESUS ) appeared to me ( Paul ). Read about it in 1 Corinthians 15.

hope this helps !!!
Appeared. you see that word? It means He was previously invisivible.
 
Appeared. you see that word? It means He was previously invisivible.
No it doesn't it just means He was hidden from their sight just like the plain words in the Bible are hidden from peoples sight, they are not invisible but they are visible yet hidden. You once again are conflating/equivocating the ideas.

Phillip in Acts 8 was a man with a human body who disappeared from one city and appeared in another city.

Was He the invisible man ?

hope this helps !!!
 
Lol.

You'd dig up a false slanderous motive to someone if you had to journey to the far ends of Tibet, wouldn't you.

My bad, I'll post the ENTIRE BIBLE with EVERY SINGLE VERSE, since otherwise it is "selective."

Obviously you are "driving false beliefs" by leaving off verse 9 and 12.

Slander? Really?

You're the one that misused the verse. Not me.

Paul often draws contrasts in his writings. To form a contrast, you must state something that is at odds with your conclusion. That is all that I ask you do. Be true to the intent of the statement.

These battles are won in the details.
 
Appeared. you see that word? It means He was previously invisivible.

Many people are not looking for Christ. They wouldn't recognize Him even if they saw Him.

I can't say that I've ever witnessed your love of Jesus Christ on full display. Should I conclude you don't love Jesus?
 
The things in the passage were hidden until the N.T. and revealed to believers through the Spirit.

the object of the apostle is not to describe the future state of the redeemed. It is to prove that those who are Christians have true wisdom 1 Corinthians 2:6-7; or that they have views of truth, and of the excellence of the plan of salvation which the world has not, and which those who crucified the Lord Jesus did not possess. The thing which he is describing here, is not merely the happiness of Christians, but their views of the wisdom of the plan of salvation. They have views of that which the eyes of other people have not seen; a view of wisdom, and fitness, and beauty which can be found in no other plan. It is true that this view is attended with a high degree of comfort; but the comfort is not the immediate thing in the eye of the apostle.

the declaration in 1 Corinthians 2:10, is conclusive proof that Paul does not refer to the happiness of heaven. He there says that God has revealed these things to Christians by his Spirit. But if already revealed, assuredly it does not refer to that which is yet to come. But although this does not refer directly to heaven, there may be an application of the passage to a future state in an indirect manner, which is not improper. If there are such manifestations of wisdom in the plan here; if Christians see so much of its beauty here on earth; and if their views so far surpass all that the world sees and enjoys, how much greater and purer will be the manifestations of wisdom and goodness in the world of glory.

Eye hath not seen - This is the same as saying, that no one had ever fully perceived and understood the value and beauty of those things which God has prepared for his people. All the world had been strangers to this until God made a revelation to his people by his Spirit. The blessedness which the apostle referred to had been unknown alike to the Jews and the Gentiles.

Nor ear heard - We learn the existence and quality of objects by the external senses; and those senses are used to denote any acquisition of knowledge. To say that the eye had not seen, nor the ear heard, was, therefore, the same as saying that it was not known at all. All people had been ignorant of it. Neither have entered into the heart of man - No man has conceived it; or understood it. It is new; and is above all that man has seen, and felt, and known. barnes

hope this helps !!!

Right!.... I was catching up :)
 
You were taling to me as if I was a JW, but you know i'm not. that is not honest comversation
but as you have admitted in the past your views on the Resurrection like up with JW's. Even to the point verbatim of the shedding of a garment is what happened with Jesus body. They teach that in their writings. They invented that idea.
 
No it doesn't it just means He was hidden from their sight just like the plain words in the Bible are hidden from peoples sight, they are not invisible but they are visible yet hidden. You once again are conflating/equivocating the ideas.

Phillip in Acts 8 was a man with a human body who disappeared from one city and appeared in another city.

Was He the invisible man ?

hope this helps !!!
context
 
You were taling to me as if I was a JW, but you know i'm not. that is not honest comversation

I don't know what you are. Why not share details?

My mother was Freewill Baptist. I can't say that it ever "stuck" with me. Since shortly after I was "born again", I stopped claiming others. I follow Christ and His apostles.
 
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