Calling on the Name of The Lord

Isn't obedience "confessing" the Lord Jesus Christ?
Yes, and if that was the only passage that said anything about what leads to receiving salvation, then that would be all that was required. But it is not the only passage that says something is required to receive salvation.
Acts 3:19 says that repentance is required. If you don't repent (completely turning away from a life of sin toward attempting to live a life of righteousness), then you cannot be saved even if you do call Jesus your Lord.
Acts 2:38 says repentance and baptism are required to receive salvation. And this is reiterated in Mark 16:16 where it says that one must believe and be baptized to be saved.
And there are other passages as well, many of which have already been cited. But if they were not there, then yes, you would be correct.
 
Please show me where in Scripture you find what I bolded in your comment above; I cannot find it anywhere.

That is not accurate, in that Jesus had the power and authority to forgive sin, and grant salvation to anyone during His life (Luke 5:24). But after His death, His Will (last will and testament) cannot be changed (Heb 9:16-28). So Jesus, before He died, had the authority to tell the thief that he was forgiven. But after Jesus died, everyone else must abide by the commandment He gave in Mark 16:16 and Matt 28:19 that says that only those who are baptized will be saved.

John (the greatest among men) said that he needed to be baptized. We have no record that he ever was.

Can you explain?
 
Yes, and if that was the only passage that said anything about what leads to receiving salvation, then that would be all that was required. But it is not the only passage that says something is required to receive salvation.
Acts 3:19 says that repentance is required. If you don't repent (completely turning away from a life of sin toward attempting to live a life of righteousness), then you cannot be saved even if you do call Jesus your Lord.
Acts 2:38 says repentance and baptism are required to receive salvation. And this is reiterated in Mark 16:16 where it says that one must believe and be baptized to be saved.
And there are other passages as well, many of which have already been cited. But if they were not there, then yes, you would be correct.

There is a easy explanation for this.

This message was preached to those who rejected the baptism of John. It was a requirement for them because it dealt with their rejection of God's work.

However, this has nothing to do with Paul's appeal to salvation for those who never heard the baptism of John.
 
The rest were saved when they were baptized by Apollos, or Cephas, or any of the other preachers who might have come to water the Seed that Paul had planted.

So you really believe that baptismal waters is.... "watering the seed"?

By what authority do you baptise? Who gave you that authority?
 
Do you see not being baptized as being a disqualifying act of disobedience or do you actually believe in baptismal regeneration?
I see that Scripture says in Col 2:11-14 and Rom 6:1-4 that we are regenerated by the Holy Spirit during baptism. And that Matt 28:19 says that baptism is an act that man performs, not Spirit baptism that only the Spirit can do (and only did on two occasions ever). And I see in 1 Pet 3:21 that baptism must be in water, as that is the baptism that now saves us. Now, if those passage were not part of Scripture, and all Scripture said was that we must hear the Gospel to be saved, then I would leave off my insistence on baptism being the point at which we are saved (having sin removed by the Holy Spirit during water immersion). But since those passages are Scripture, and Scripture contains no error, these things must be truth.
 
John (the greatest among men) said that he needed to be baptized. We have no record that he ever was.

Can you explain?
John (the Baptizer) was the greatest among men. But he was never part of the Kingdom of God (the least in the Kingdom is greater than he). Why? Because he died before the Kingdom began. He did not require baptism because he died before the New Covenant was initiated in Jesus' blood.
 
John (the Baptizer) was the greatest among men. But he was never part of the Kingdom of God (the least in the Kingdom is greater than he). Why? Because he died before the Kingdom began. He did not require baptism because he died before the New Covenant was initiated in Jesus' blood.

I disagree but you're ignoring the part where John himself said that he needed to be baptized. Can you explain?
 
There is a easy explanation for this.

This message was preached to those who rejected the baptism of John. It was a requirement for them because it dealt with their rejection of God's work.

However, this has nothing to do with Paul's appeal to salvation for those who never heard the baptism of John.
Then why was the same message preached to the Eunuch headed back to Ethiopia (who asked to be baptized after Philip preached to him). And why was the same message preached to the jailer who was (most likely) not a part of the crowd in Jerusalem? And why did Peter state that baptism now saves us in his letter many, many years later? The New Testament is consistent in its insistence that water baptism is the point at which salvation is received.
 
No. Just saying that the "drawing" Jesus referenced was the preaching of the Gospel. Drawing isn't dragging.
Interesting point, but not what I was getting at. Bright wants to claim that only those who have already been regenerated can respond to the Gospel. He says you have to be saved before you can respond to the gospel. My point is that Jesus drew ALL THE WORLD to Himself, and I believe that gives everyone in the world the ability to respond to the Gospel when they hear it preached. No, it does not force anyone to obey it. But it does allow anyone to become the Elect, because everyone has been drawn.
 
So you really believe that baptismal waters is.... "watering the seed"?
No, I believe that many require further teaching and preaching, and that is "watering the seed". Some respond immediately, like Crispus and Gaius must have. But many require years of watering before the seed grows in their heart.
By what authority do you baptise? Who gave you that authority?
I baptize by the authority of Jesus (in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit (Matt 28:19)). And that authority comes from Jesus' instruction to the Apostles, which is passed on to each person they taught, and then on to the ones they taught, down to us today (Matt 28:20).
 
I disagree but you're ignoring the part where John himself said that he needed to be baptized. Can you explain?
John was baptizing people as an act of repentance. He himself was repentant, knowing that he was not sinless. Yet, one cannot baptize himself (presumably), and John may have seen the need to be baptized, not just into repentance, but into Christ Jesus also. But that was not a baptism that had been initiated yet.
 
If that were the case, then everyone was regenerated, because Jesus drew ALL men to Himself when He was crucified (unless you believe that Jesus was wrong in John 12:32.
Only the regenerated were regenerated. And they were all regenerated by Christs death. So if one isnt never regenerated, they arent part of the all Christ died for.
 
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