BCF_WCF

BCF/WCF:

Premise:
a) God decrees/ordains all that come to pass.

Conclusion:
b) God decrees/ordains man to sin.
c) Man can do nothing but that which God decrees/ordains.
d) God punishes man for doing that which is decreed/ordained by God.

Sounds about right? If not, please explain.
 
100% correct and compatibilism attempts to get out of their dilemma. That’s why the hyper Calvinist or the original one Calvin is the only consistent one with their teachings.
 
I have quoted calvin well 100's of times on our forum affirming the predestination of the wicked for destruction from all eternity. Its inescapable that he affirmed it and then also denied it. That is what calvin did and his present day followers do as well, they affirm a doctrine then when challenged will deny it which is why its called the inconsistent calvinist.

Calvin below:

“We also note that we should consider the creation of the world so that we may realize that everything is subject to God and ruled by his will and that when the world has done what it may, nothing happens other than what God decrees.” Acts: Calvin, The Crossway Classic Commentaries, p.66

“First, the eternal predestination of God, by which before the fall of Adam He decreed what should take place concerning the whole human race and every individual, was fixed and determined.” (Concerning the Eternal Predestination of God, p.121


“When he uses the term permission, he means that the will of God is the supreme and primary cause of everything, because nothing happens without his order of permission.” The Institutes of Christian Religion, Book I, Ch. 16, Sect. 8

“For myself, I take another principle: Whatever things are done wrongly and unjustly by man, these very things are the right and just works of God. This may seem paradoxical at first sight to some....” Concerning the Eternal Predestination of God, p.169


“Indeed, the ungodly pride themselves on being competent to effect their wishes. But the facts show in the end that by them, unconsciously and unwillingly, what was divinely ordained is implemented.” Concerning the Eternal Predestination of God, p.173,

“Does God work in the hearts of men, directing their plans and moving their wills this way and that, so that they do nothing but what He has ordained?” Concerning the Eternal Predestination of God, p.174

Read calvin below:

“But it is quite frivolous refuge to say that God otiosely permits them, when Scripture shows Him not only willing but the author of them.” Concerning the Eternal Predestination of God page 176

“But the objection is not yet resolved, that if all things are done by the will of God, and men contrive nothing except by His will and ordination, then God is the author of all evils.” Concerning the Eternal Predestination of God, p.179

God is the AUTHOR !

Did you read that ?

The Famous Calvinist John Piper who gets it from the WCF says the following about evil taken from desiring god website :


"Ephesians 1:11 goes even further by declaring that God in Christ “works all things according to the counsel of his will.” Here the Greek word for “works” is energeø, which indicates that God not merely carries all of the universe’s objects and events to their appointed ends but that he actually brings about all things in accordance with his will. In other words, it isn’t just that God manages to turn the evil aspects of our world to good for those who love him; it is rather that he himself brings about these evil aspects for his glory (see Exodus 9:13-16; John 9:3) and his people’s good (see Hebrews 12:3-11; James 1:2-4).


This includes — as incredible and as unacceptable as it may currently seem — God’s having even brought about the Nazis’ brutality at Birkenau and Auschwitz as well as the terrible killings of Dennis Rader and even the sexual abuse of a young child: “The LORD has made everything for its own purpose, even the wicked for the day of evil” (Proverbs 16:4, NASB). “When times are good, be happy; but when times are bad, consider: God has made the one as well as the other” (Ecclesiastes 7:14, NIV)." www.desiringgod.org/message...ds-gracious-hand-in-the-hurts-others-do-to-us

hope this helps !!!
 
John Calvin confessed that the doctrine of Double Predestination was a horrible and dreadful decree in his Institutes of the Christian Religion. John Calvin: Institutes of the Christian Religion - Christian Classics Ethereal Library

Why would anyone believe such a horrific and dreadful doctrine ?

Again I ask: whence does it happen that Adam's fall irremediably involved so many peoples, together with their infant offspring, in eternal death unless because it so pleased God? Here their tongues, otherwise so loquacious, must become mute. The decree is dreadful indeed, I confess. (latin. "Decretum quidem horribile, fateor."; french. "Je confesse que ce decret nous doit epouvanter.") Yet no one can deny that God foreknew what end man was to have before he created him, and consequently foreknew because he so ordained by his decree. If anyone inveighs against God's foreknowledge at this point, he stumbles rashly and heedlessly. What reason is there to accuse the Heavenly Judge because he was not ignorant of what was to happen? If there is any just or manifest complaint, it applies to predestination. And it ought not to seem absurd for me to say that God not only foresaw the fall of the first man, and in him the ruin of his descendants, but also meted it out in accordance with his own decision. For as it pertains to his wisdom to foreknow everything that is to happen, so it pertains to his might to rule and control everything by his hand. And Augustine also skillfully disposes of this question, as of others: "We most wholesomely confess what we most correctly believe, that the God and Lord of all things, who created all things exceedingly good [cf. Gen 1:31], and foreknew that evil things would rise out of good, and also knew that it pertained to his most omnipotent goodness to bring good out of evil things to be . . . , so ordained the life of angels and men that in it he might first of all show what free will could do, and then what the blessing of his grace and the verdict of his justice could do. (Augustine, On Rebuke and Grace X. 27)"

Calvin regarded soteriological predestination as God’s eternal decree, by which he compacted with himself what he willed to become of each man. For all are not created in equal condition: rather, eternal life is fore-ordained for some, eternal damnation for others. Therefore, as any man has been created to one or the other of these ends, we speak of him as predestined to life or to death. gospelcoilition

" God is said to set apart those whom he adopts into salvation; it will be highly absurd to say that others acquire by chance or by their own effort what election alone confers on a few. Therefore, whom God passes over, he condemns: and this he does for no other reason than that he wills to exclude them from the inheritance which he predestines for his own children. " Institutes, III, 23, 1.


hope this helps !!!
 
BCF/WCF:

Premise:
a) God decrees/ordains all that come to pass.

Conclusion:
b) God decrees/ordains man to sin.
c) Man can do nothing but that which God decrees/ordains.
d) God punishes man for doing that which is decreed/ordained by God.

Sounds about right? If not, please explain.
Its ridiculous.

God ordains a divided body of Christ and disunity. God ordains some believers to believe tulip while other believers to reject it.

A confused god who causes divisiveness within the body of Christ.

That doctrine is just the opposite of the God of the bible.
 
Its ridiculous.

God ordains a divided body of Christ and disunity. God ordains some believers to believe tulip while other believers to reject it.

A confused god who causes divisiveness within the body of Christ.

That doctrine is just the opposite of the God of the bible.
1Cor 1:10 Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment.

1Cor 14:33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.
 
1Cor 1:10 Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment.

1Cor 14:33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.
That alone should be enough evidence that the doctrine is unbiblical. Kudos !
 
Its ridiculous.

God ordains a divided body of Christ and disunity. God ordains some believers to believe tulip while other believers to reject it.
Calvinism as revealed from your quotes from Calvin and from the WestC would also mean this. If all is decreed or ordained that would also mean God really doesn't want even the saints to work through the process of sanctification until some appointed time. In other words a Calvinist Christian could say because I'm still committing sins A, B and C it still must be God's will.....why? Because I'm still doing it and if I wasn't doing it that would be the time God ordained me not to."
In other words God gets blamed for everything.
 
Calvinism as revealed from your quotes from Calvin and from the WestC would also mean this. If all is decreed or ordained that would also mean God really doesn't want even the saints to work through the process of sanctification until some appointed time. In other words a Calvinist Christian could say because I'm still committing sins A, B and C it still must be God's will.....why? Because I'm still doing it and if I wasn't doing it that would be the time God ordained me not to."
In other words God gets blamed for everything.
Exactly as I can’t tell you how many times on the old A/C forum on CARM that is exactly their response defending sin as if it was Gods will. Unbelievable. I challenged them all of the time and I would get banned for “ causing division” when I was not the one who was justifying my sins. That’s where having a biased moderator that was a Calvinist was a major failure that was incapable of being unbiased.
 
BCF/WCF:

Premise:
a) God decrees/ordains all that come to pass.

Conclusion:
b) God decrees/ordains man to sin.
c) Man can do nothing but that which God decrees/ordains.
d) God punishes man for doing that which is decreed/ordained by God.

Sounds about right? If not, please explain.
19 You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?” 20 On the contrary, who are you, you foolish person, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it? 21 Or does the potter not have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one object for honorable use, and another for common use? 22 What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with great patience objects of wrath prepared for destruction? 23 And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon objects of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory, 24 namely us, whom He also called, not only from among Jews, but also from among Gentiles
 
19 You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?” 20 On the contrary, who are you, you foolish person, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it? 21 Or does the potter not have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one object for honorable use, and another for common use? 22 What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with great patience objects of wrath prepared for destruction? 23 And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon objects of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory, 24 namely us, whom He also called, not only from among Jews, but also from among Gentiles
He is talking about Israel His chosen and elect people in the context . It opposes Calvinism not supports it.

hope this helps!!!
 
A friend of mine posted this in another forum which I agree.

Paul uses two teaching methods throughout Romans even secular philosophy classes will use Romans as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method goes beyond just a general diatribe and follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments in the Psalms and throughout the Old Testament, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.

The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.



The main question (a diatribe question) in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!



This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate and giving the opposition the first shot as done in all diatribes).



Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau? Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?



If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?



This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.



Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”



Who is the “one of you” is this Jewish Christian (elect) or Gentile Christian (elect) or is this “non-elect” individual (this “letter” is written to Christians and not non-Christians)?



Can Jews say they cannot be blamed for failing in their honored position or would it be the Gentiles that would say they cannot be blamed since they were not in the honored position?



Is it really significant when it comes to what really counts, if you are born a gentile or Jew in first century Rome?



Are there issues and problems with being a first century Jew and was this a problem for Paul?



The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison (the Gentiles).



How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.



Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the born Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.



Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!



The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.



If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.

Rm 9: 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?

This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start by the Potter “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is of great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since they left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potter’s signature and He would want it destroyed.

To understand this as Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same Greek words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul even points out the common can become the honored vessel.

2 Tim. 2: 20 In a large house there are articles not only of gold and silver, but also of wood and clay; some are for special purposes and some for common use. 21 Those who cleanse themselves from the latter will be instruments for special purposes, made holy, useful to the Master and prepared to do any good work.

Important to note is the fact: the dishonorable vessel can cleanse themselves and become vessels of honor.

That is a short explanation, since you really need to study all of Romans especially chapters 9, 10 and 11. Also please look at individual laments in the Psalms and diatribes in general, I really cut those short.





YES!! Let us not mitigate the Greek!!!

2Tim.2:20 In a large house there are articles not only of gold and silver, but also of wood and clay; some are for special purposes and some for common use. 21 Those who cleanse themselves from the latter will be instruments for special purposes, made holy, useful to the Master and prepared to do any good work.

You are right to say this concept is not discussed in Ro. 9, but in 2 Tim. 2:21 you have the exact same words used by Paul again presenting a similar analogy as he did in Ro. 9.

In 2 Tim 2:21 you have the τιμὴν (timēn) meaning honorable, special, highly prized and also, we have ἀτιμίαν (atimian) meaning common, disgraceful, dishonorable, which are the exact same words Paul uses again in Ro.9.

The point is: a wealthy home owner is not going to have anything dishonorable in his house, but would have lots of common vessels in his house (not made of silver and gold).

Many translators pick up on Paul’s use of τιμὴν (timēn) and ἀτιμίαν (atimian) and translate these words special and common in Ro.9, again the potter makes both special and common vessels and puts his mark on the bottom of both, because they fit their purpose.

In both Ro. 9 and 2 Tim. 2:21 Paul is referring to the differences in people and the way they are born (come out of the shop). In 2Tim. 2 Paul also conveys the idea people can change themselves, so the vessel is not fixed from the beginning, but can change (this is not talked about in Ro.9).

In Ro. 9 Paul is trying to get across the idea it does not matter whether you left the Potter’s shop (were born) for a very special purpose (Jews) or a common purpose (Gentiles), since everything that left the shop (was born) with the mark of the Potter.

What is made for destruction then? The Potter does not make objects for destruction (like clay pigeons), but any vessel that leaves the shop can be changed by the individual vessel (this is seen in 2 Tim.2:21). If the vessel (common or special) develops a crack and leaks, it is not worthy of the Potter’s mark and should be destroyed (people of the first century would understand this).

The problem is in suggesting the Potter (God) makes stuff to be destroyed (some humans), since nothing would leave His shop (be born) of no value.

Also Jer. 18 is talking about clay still in the shop and God changing it before it leaves made from the shop. Totally different scenario.bling

hope this helps !!!
 
A friend of mine posted this in another forum which I agree.

Paul uses two teaching methods throughout Romans even secular philosophy classes will use Romans as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method goes beyond just a general diatribe and follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments in the Psalms and throughout the Old Testament, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.

The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.



The main question (a diatribe question) in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!



This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate and giving the opposition the first shot as done in all diatribes).



Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau? Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?



If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?



This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.



Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”



Who is the “one of you” is this Jewish Christian (elect) or Gentile Christian (elect) or is this “non-elect” individual (this “letter” is written to Christians and not non-Christians)?



Can Jews say they cannot be blamed for failing in their honored position or would it be the Gentiles that would say they cannot be blamed since they were not in the honored position?



Is it really significant when it comes to what really counts, if you are born a gentile or Jew in first century Rome?



Are there issues and problems with being a first century Jew and was this a problem for Paul?



The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison (the Gentiles).



How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.



Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the born Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.



Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!



The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.



If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.

Rm 9: 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?

This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start by the Potter “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is of great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since they left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potter’s signature and He would want it destroyed.

To understand this as Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same Greek words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul even points out the common can become the honored vessel.

2 Tim. 2: 20 In a large house there are articles not only of gold and silver, but also of wood and clay; some are for special purposes and some for common use. 21 Those who cleanse themselves from the latter will be instruments for special purposes, made holy, useful to the Master and prepared to do any good work.

Important to note is the fact: the dishonorable vessel can cleanse themselves and become vessels of honor.

That is a short explanation, since you really need to study all of Romans especially chapters 9, 10 and 11. Also please look at individual laments in the Psalms and diatribes in general, I really cut those short.





YES!! Let us not mitigate the Greek!!!

2Tim.2:20 In a large house there are articles not only of gold and silver, but also of wood and clay; some are for special purposes and some for common use. 21 Those who cleanse themselves from the latter will be instruments for special purposes, made holy, useful to the Master and prepared to do any good work.

You are right to say this concept is not discussed in Ro. 9, but in 2 Tim. 2:21 you have the exact same words used by Paul again presenting a similar analogy as he did in Ro. 9.

In 2 Tim 2:21 you have the τιμὴν (timēn) meaning honorable, special, highly prized and also, we have ἀτιμίαν (atimian) meaning common, disgraceful, dishonorable, which are the exact same words Paul uses again in Ro.9.

The point is: a wealthy home owner is not going to have anything dishonorable in his house, but would have lots of common vessels in his house (not made of silver and gold).

Many translators pick up on Paul’s use of τιμὴν (timēn) and ἀτιμίαν (atimian) and translate these words special and common in Ro.9, again the potter makes both special and common vessels and puts his mark on the bottom of both, because they fit their purpose.

In both Ro. 9 and 2 Tim. 2:21 Paul is referring to the differences in people and the way they are born (come out of the shop). In 2Tim. 2 Paul also conveys the idea people can change themselves, so the vessel is not fixed from the beginning, but can change (this is not talked about in Ro.9).

In Ro. 9 Paul is trying to get across the idea it does not matter whether you left the Potter’s shop (were born) for a very special purpose (Jews) or a common purpose (Gentiles), since everything that left the shop (was born) with the mark of the Potter.

What is made for destruction then? The Potter does not make objects for destruction (like clay pigeons), but any vessel that leaves the shop can be changed by the individual vessel (this is seen in 2 Tim.2:21). If the vessel (common or special) develops a crack and leaks, it is not worthy of the Potter’s mark and should be destroyed (people of the first century would understand this).

The problem is in suggesting the Potter (God) makes stuff to be destroyed (some humans), since nothing would leave His shop (be born) of no value.

Also Jer. 18 is talking about clay still in the shop and God changing it before it leaves made from the shop. Totally different scenario.bling

hope this helps !!!
So very good! I'd say it really does take a willingness though for one's to look at the whole passage of Romans.....to understand Paul's writing style and not to take one or two verses and run with them taking them out of their context setting.

Your post here was long BUT absolutely necessary when it comes to this subject to get the true full picture of understanding. I hope people will take time with this, go back and consider each point. Just so easy for people to say Nope verse 9 says this.....verse 15 says that.....but get the feel and context or flow of the whole passage and not even just chapter 9. Good post!
 
So very good! I'd say it really does take a willingness though for one's to look at the whole passage of Romans.....to understand Paul's writing style and not to take one or two verses and run with them taking them out of their context setting.

Your post here was long BUT absolutely necessary when it comes to this subject to get the true full picture of understanding. I hope people will take time with this, go back and consider each point. Just so easy for people to say Nope verse 9 says this.....verse 15 says that.....but get the feel and context or flow of the whole passage and not even just chapter 9. Good post!
Yes and the same thing happens with a couple verses ripped from Ephesians 1. When looking at the whole context of Ephesians 1:1- 2:10 its clear that is supports the non calvinist position.
 
19 You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?” 20 On the contrary, who are you, you foolish person, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it? 21 Or does the potter not have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one object for honorable use, and another for common use? 22 What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with great patience objects of wrath prepared for destruction? 23 And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon objects of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory, 24 namely us, whom He also called, not only from among Jews, but also from among Gentiles
The context is not about finding fault with Calvinism.
 
Nope.

Start by actually READING the Baptist Confession of Faith (BCF) or Westminster Confession of Faith (WCF) where the matter is explained in detail. Then if you have specific questions about specific parts that need more clarification … ask them.
We are interested in scripture not uninspired men from the WCF and BCF. Edited
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Nope.

Start by actually READING the Baptist Confession of Faith (BCF) or Westminster Confession of Faith (WCF) where the matter is explained in detail. Then if you have specific questions about specific parts that need more clarification … ask them.
I asked, " If not, please explain. "; I did not ask for directions.

Please explain the error in the OP.
 
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