Appeasement of a Monster God?

My God, My God, why has Thou forsaken Me. That seems very clear. The people didn't know what He meant because they didn't understand who Jesus was. They believed He was crying out to Elijah.

You failed to consider the rest of the verse quoted

Psalm 22:24 (LEB) — 24 because he has not despised nor abhorred the affliction of the afflicted, and has not hid his face from him; but he listened to him when he cried for help.

and you ignored this

2 Corinthians 5:19 (LEB) — 19 namely, that God was in Christ reconciling the world to himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and entrusting to us the message of reconciliation.

and you assumed that forsake means the Father forsakes the sin

when others note possibles of


1)the amount of time on the cross - Sam Shamoun

The assumption of the attitude of man to heal it - Paul Vendredi

or even a temporary human thought which is shown to wrong by the verses above
 
I can hear you and your attack.
Scripture and theology

Um you are denying scripture

2 Corinthians 5:19 (KJV 1900) — 19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

John 10:38 (LEB) — 38 But if I am doing them, even if you do not believe me, believe the deeds, so that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.”

John 14:10 (LEB) — 10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak from myself, but the Father residing in me does his works.



and denying orthodox doctrine

Perichoresis

The Orthodox Formulation

The orthodox doctrine of the Trinity was enunciated in a series of debates and councils that were in large part prompted by the controversies sparked by such movements as monarchianism and Arianism. The Council of Constantinople (381) formulated a definitive statement in which the church made explicit the beliefs previously held implicitly. The view that prevailed was basically that of Athanasius (293–373), as elaborated and refined by the Cappadocian theologians—Basil, Gregory of Nazianzus, and Gregory of Nyssa.

The formula that expresses the position of Constantinople is “one οὐσία (ousia - essence) in three ὑποστάσεις ((hupostaseis).” The emphasis often seems to be more on the latter part of the formula, that is, the separate existence of the three persons rather than on the one indivisible Godhead. The one Godhead exists simultaneously in three modes of being or hypostases. The idea of “coinherence” or, as later termed, perichoresis, of the persons is emphasized. The Godhead exists “undivided in divided persons.” There is an “identity of nature” in the three hypostases. Basil says:

For all things that are the Father’s are beheld in the Son, and all things that are the Son’s are the Father’s; because the whole Son is in the Father and has all the Father in himself. Thus the hypostasis of the Son becomes as it were form and face of the knowledge of the Father, and the hypostasis of the Father is known in the form of the Son, while the proper quality which is contemplated therein remains for the plain distinction of the hypostases.1

1 Millard J. Erickson, Christian Theology. (2nd ed.; Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Book House, 1998), 361
 
You failed to consider the rest of the verse quoted

Psalm 22:24 (LEB) — 24 because he has not despised nor abhorred the affliction of the afflicted, and has not hid his face from him; but he listened to him when he cried for help.

and you ignored this

2 Corinthians 5:19 (LEB) — 19 namely, that God was in Christ reconciling the world to himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and entrusting to us the message of reconciliation.

and you assumed that forsake means the Father forsakes the sin

when others note possibles of


1)the amount of time on the cross - Sam Shamoun

The assumption of the attitude of man to heal it - Paul Vendredi

or even a temporary human thought which is shown to wrong by the verses above
But you ignored this: Jesus cried out "My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken Me?" Did Jesus lie? Why do you seem to believe He did? Again, you completely ignore the context of 2 Corinthians 5. And no, I don't assume that forsake means the Father forsakes sin. I very specifically stated that God can have nothing to do with sin. You claim He can fellowship with sin all day long. (No you didn't, but I can do what you did, right?) The fellowship between the divine and human natures within the body of Christ, which you keep seeming to deny, was disrupted by the presence of sin imputed on the sacrifice by the High Priest. It was specifically "forsaken", however, it would very much feel like it. I have given examples before. Just because it feels like one is forsaken does not mean they are. It is what they perceive, and what they feel, not necessarily reality. This is what you refuse to consider. You refuse to consider that Jesus did not lie, and you refuse to consider how that can be.
 
Scripture and theology

Um you are denying scripture

2 Corinthians 5:19 (KJV 1900) — 19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

John 10:38 (LEB) — 38 But if I am doing them, even if you do not believe me, believe the deeds, so that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.”

John 14:10 (LEB) — 10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak from myself, but the Father residing in me does his works.



and denying orthodox doctrine

Perichoresis

The Orthodox Formulation

The orthodox doctrine of the Trinity was enunciated in a series of debates and councils that were in large part prompted by the controversies sparked by such movements as monarchianism and Arianism. The Council of Constantinople (381) formulated a definitive statement in which the church made explicit the beliefs previously held implicitly. The view that prevailed was basically that of Athanasius (293–373), as elaborated and refined by the Cappadocian theologians—Basil, Gregory of Nazianzus, and Gregory of Nyssa.

The formula that expresses the position of Constantinople is “one οὐσία (ousia - essence) in three ὑποστάσεις ((hupostaseis).” The emphasis often seems to be more on the latter part of the formula, that is, the separate existence of the three persons rather than on the one indivisible Godhead. The one Godhead exists simultaneously in three modes of being or hypostases. The idea of “coinherence” or, as later termed, perichoresis, of the persons is emphasized. The Godhead exists “undivided in divided persons.” There is an “identity of nature” in the three hypostases. Basil says:

For all things that are the Father’s are beheld in the Son, and all things that are the Son’s are the Father’s; because the whole Son is in the Father and has all the Father in himself. Thus the hypostasis of the Son becomes as it were form and face of the knowledge of the Father, and the hypostasis of the Father is known in the form of the Son, while the proper quality which is contemplated therein remains for the plain distinction of the hypostases.1

1 Millard J. Erickson, Christian Theology. (2nd ed.; Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Book House, 1998), 361
This is the nail in the coffin for PSA Advocates the Tri-Unity of God. And they cannot claim Jesus humanity since Jesus is a Divine Person, not a human person. Separation for even a millisecond is an impossibility with the Trinity.

God ( the Father ) was IN CHRIST ( with Him, indwelling ) reconciling the world unto Himself ( the Father )- Perichoresis 101.

Trinitarians who believe PSA just had both of their legs cut off and no Scripture to stand upon- the ones they try to are misunderstood, just like tulip advocates do with scripture and twist them.

hope this helps !!!
 
This is the nail in the coffin for PSA Advocates the Tri-Unity of God. And they cannot claim Jesus humanity since Jesus is a Divine Person, not a human person. Separation for even a millisecond is an impossibility with the Trinity.
Ah, so you deny Christ's humanity. Dualist or Nestorian? Gnostic?
God ( the Father ) was IN CHRIST ( with Him, indwelling ) reconciling the world unto Himself ( the Father )- Perichoresis 101.
Read the context. It is figurative. He was in the sacrifice, using the sacrifice to reconcile the world unto Himself. It is a difficult concept to understand when one is looking at God Himself as a human, and not as divine and eternal. It is beyond our capability to fully understand/comprehend.
Trinitarians who believe PSA just had both of their legs cut off and no Scripture to stand upon- the ones they try to are misunderstood, just like tulip advocates do with scripture and twist them.
I'm not going to become a Nestorian to please you. (Or a dualist or gnostic.)
hope this helps !!!
 
Ah, so you deny Christ's humanity. Dualist or Nestorian? Gnostic?

Read the context. It is figurative. He was in the sacrifice, using the sacrifice to reconcile the world unto Himself. It is a difficult concept to understand when one is looking at God Himself as a human, and not as divine and eternal. It is beyond our capability to fully understand/comprehend.

I'm not going to become a Nestorian to please you. (Or a dualist or gnostic.)
I will let this Calvinist theologian Berkhof correct you on the 2 natures in Christ, the Hypostatic Union. Chalcedon supports me, not you. I love it when I can use a Calvinist theologian against a Calvinist online to correct their heretical views.

Anhypostasia is essential to a trinitarian understanding of the person of the God-man. It is impossible to be a trinitarian without a confession of it. Classical Christology has described the relationship of the two natures of Christ by using the rather arcane-sounding terms anhypostasis and enhypostasis. What does this mean? Well, firstly, the human nature of Jesus has no hypostasis, or "person", of its own, but subsists only as the human nature of the Son of God, the second person of the Trinity. His human nature is anhypostatic in that it has no personhood, or independent reality of its own (the word 'subsists' is used rather than 'exists’' to indicate this dependence): rather it is hypostatized in union with, in (so, enhypostasis), the person of the Logos. This is how Chalcedon is explained: we have in Jesus one person in two natures. The subject of this human nature is divine. Thus Jesus is a divine person and not a human person! Here's Louis Berkhof, A Summary of Christian Doctrine, The Banner of Truth Trust, 1938, p. 87:
 
I will let this Calvinist theologian Berkhof correct you on the 2 natures in Christ, the Hypostatic Union. Chalcedon supports me, not you. I love it when I can use a Calvinist theologian against a Calvinist online to correct their heretical views.

Anhypostasia is essential to a trinitarian understanding of the person of the God-man. It is impossible to be a trinitarian without a confession of it. Classical Christology has described the relationship of the two natures of Christ by using the rather arcane-sounding terms anhypostasis and enhypostasis. What does this mean? Well, firstly, the human nature of Jesus has no hypostasis, or "person", of its own, but subsists only as the human nature of the Son of God, the second person of the Trinity. His human nature is anhypostatic in that it has no personhood, or independent reality of its own (the word 'subsists' is used rather than 'exists’' to indicate this dependence): rather it is hypostatized in union with, in (so, enhypostasis), the person of the Logos. This is how Chalcedon is explained: we have in Jesus one person in two natures. The subject of this human nature is divine. Thus Jesus is a divine person and not a human person! Here's Louis Berkhof, A Summary of Christian Doctrine, The Banner of Truth Trust, 1938, p. 87:
I think you are missing just how complicated this truly is. Did Satan really believe that He could make God antithetical to Himself? Antithetical to His own existence? Just who/what was Satan tempting? Why was Jesus rewarded afterwards? Why did God the Father introduce Jesus as He did at the baptism? Why did He say that along with "in Him I am well pleased."? What about Jesus pleased the Father such? Did God bleed when the Romans struck Him? Can God bleed? Did God really get stressed out about the cross to the point that unlike most humanity, He sweat drops of blood? Why would/did God get so stressed out? If Jesus is God, and the Father is God, how can the Father know something as God that Jesus doesn't know as God? (Or the Holy Spirit know as God?) What is the distinction here between Jesus and God? If the only being of thought in Jesus is divine, is God, then how can He not know as God?

There is no doubt that Jesus is God. There is no doubt that Jesus is the Logos become flesh, God incarnate. There is no doubt that Jesus came in the flesh as John said. The issue is, just what does it mean to say Jesus came in the flesh? Why stress that? This is not something that we can hope to truly comprehend before we actually see it. If you have one person with two natures, then by definition that one person IS two natures, right? However, we clearly have John speaking of two parts. The Logos that was both with and was God, and the flesh, which the Logos became flesh. Some time ago in research, I read it put as there are two spirits/two natures in Christ that coexisted as one in perfect harmony. While two natures/two spirits, they spoke as one. That is how perfect the union was. The Logos and the flesh.

Who died on the cross? Human/flesh or God/divinity? Which is worse, to say that a person with title who exists in the trinity was forsaken by the others for a moment due to humanity's sin, or that the trinity was torn apart by God (Jesus) dying? The body, the person (which you have Berhkhof saying is divine) dying, and then the spirit being made alive. Is that a soul, which you are saying Jesus did not have a human soul, which is to say, a human person? Did God actually die, that is, was God separated from Himself?

This would be the reason why I would say that this is complicated. Some questions are most possibly not correct, but if any are, they need an answer, right?

Jesus is the second member of the trinity, the Son of God, also, before becoming Jesus, was the Logos who was both with and was God. The name Jesus, the personage of Jesus came with the Logos being made flesh, when God became flesh/incarnate.

This is not a or the final answer. These are questions that show where there are possibilities that our comprehension of just who God is may fall short. That is all. I believe John 1 as written. I believe I John where it says Jesus came in the flesh. I also believe Paul when he says that God made Him who knew no sin to be sin. Can God's holiness be stained in such a way? If sin is everything God is not, what does it mean when it says God made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us? Am I looking for answers that destroy what you believe? NO, NO, NO, NO, NO x infinity. If you believe Jesus is God, you are on the right track (obviously.) If you believe Jesus came in the flesh, you are on the right track, according to John. This is to question the extraneous. The nuance. It is the reason I don't like named/titled beliefs. They are rigid and have no flexibility.
 
I think you are missing just how complicated this truly is. Did Satan really believe that He could make God antithetical to Himself? Antithetical to His own existence? Just who/what was Satan tempting? Why was Jesus rewarded afterwards? Why did God the Father introduce Jesus as He did at the baptism? Why did He say that along with "in Him I am well pleased."? What about Jesus pleased the Father such? Did God bleed when the Romans struck Him? Can God bleed? Did God really get stressed out about the cross to the point that unlike most humanity, He sweat drops of blood? Why would/did God get so stressed out? If Jesus is God, and the Father is God, how can the Father know something as God that Jesus doesn't know as God? (Or the Holy Spirit know as God?) What is the distinction here between Jesus and God? If the only being of thought in Jesus is divine, is God, then how can He not know as God?

There is no doubt that Jesus is God. There is no doubt that Jesus is the Logos become flesh, God incarnate. There is no doubt that Jesus came in the flesh as John said. The issue is, just what does it mean to say Jesus came in the flesh? Why stress that? This is not something that we can hope to truly comprehend before we actually see it. If you have one person with two natures, then by definition that one person IS two natures, right? However, we clearly have John speaking of two parts. The Logos that was both with and was God, and the flesh, which the Logos became flesh. Some time ago in research, I read it put as there are two spirits/two natures in Christ that coexisted as one in perfect harmony. While two natures/two spirits, they spoke as one. That is how perfect the union was. The Logos and the flesh.

Who died on the cross? Human/flesh or God/divinity? Which is worse, to say that a person with title who exists in the trinity was forsaken by the others for a moment due to humanity's sin, or that the trinity was torn apart by God (Jesus) dying? The body, the person (which you have Berhkhof saying is divine) dying, and then the spirit being made alive. Is that a soul, which you are saying Jesus did not have a human soul, which is to say, a human person? Did God actually die, that is, was God separated from Himself?

This would be the reason why I would say that this is complicated. Some questions are most possibly not correct, but if any are, they need an answer, right?

Jesus is the second member of the trinity, the Son of God, also, before becoming Jesus, was the Logos who was both with and was God. The name Jesus, the personage of Jesus came with the Logos being made flesh, when God became flesh/incarnate.

This is not a or the final answer. These are questions that show where there are possibilities that our comprehension of just who God is may fall short. That is all. I believe John 1 as written. I believe I John where it says Jesus came in the flesh. I also believe Paul when he says that God made Him who knew no sin to be sin. Can God's holiness be stained in such a way? If sin is everything God is not, what does it mean when it says God made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us? Am I looking for answers that destroy what you believe? NO, NO, NO, NO, NO x infinity. If you believe Jesus is God, you are on the right track (obviously.) If you believe Jesus came in the flesh, you are on the right track, according to John. This is to question the extraneous. The nuance. It is the reason I don't like named/titled beliefs. They are rigid and have no flexibility.
Good post I’ll try and respond after work.
 
Ah, so you deny Christ's humanity. Dualist or Nestorian? Gnostic?

Read the context. It is figurative. He was in the sacrifice, using the sacrifice to reconcile the world unto Himself. It is a difficult concept to understand when one is looking at God Himself as a human, and not as divine and eternal. It is beyond our capability to fully understand/comprehend.

I'm not going to become a Nestorian to please you. (Or a dualist or gnostic.)

My penny. It would do many people good to actually understand what flesh is and is not.
 
I think you are missing just how complicated this truly is. Did Satan really believe that He could make God antithetical to Himself? Antithetical to His own existence? Just who/what was Satan tempting? Why was Jesus rewarded afterwards? Why did God the Father introduce Jesus as He did at the baptism? Why did He say that along with "in Him I am well pleased."? What about Jesus pleased the Father such? Did God bleed when the Romans struck Him? Can God bleed? Did God really get stressed out about the cross to the point that unlike most humanity, He sweat drops of blood? Why would/did God get so stressed out? If Jesus is God, and the Father is God, how can the Father know something as God that Jesus doesn't know as God? (Or the Holy Spirit know as God?) What is the distinction here between Jesus and God? If the only being of thought in Jesus is divine, is God, then how can He not know as God?

There is no doubt that Jesus is God. There is no doubt that Jesus is the Logos become flesh, God incarnate. There is no doubt that Jesus came in the flesh as John said. The issue is, just what does it mean to say Jesus came in the flesh? Why stress that? This is not something that we can hope to truly comprehend before we actually see it. If you have one person with two natures, then by definition that one person IS two natures, right? However, we clearly have John speaking of two parts. The Logos that was both with and was God, and the flesh, which the Logos became flesh. Some time ago in research, I read it put as there are two spirits/two natures in Christ that coexisted as one in perfect harmony. While two natures/two spirits, they spoke as one. That is how perfect the union was. The Logos and the flesh.

Who died on the cross? Human/flesh or God/divinity? Which is worse, to say that a person with title who exists in the trinity was forsaken by the others for a moment due to humanity's sin, or that the trinity was torn apart by God (Jesus) dying? The body, the person (which you have Berhkhof saying is divine) dying, and then the spirit being made alive. Is that a soul, which you are saying Jesus did not have a human soul, which is to say, a human person? Did God actually die, that is, was God separated from Himself?

This would be the reason why I would say that this is complicated. Some questions are most possibly not correct, but if any are, they need an answer, right?

Jesus is the second member of the trinity, the Son of God, also, before becoming Jesus, was the Logos who was both with and was God. The name Jesus, the personage of Jesus came with the Logos being made flesh, when God became flesh/incarnate.

This is not a or the final answer. These are questions that show where there are possibilities that our comprehension of just who God is may fall short. That is all. I believe John 1 as written. I believe I John where it says Jesus came in the flesh. I also believe Paul when he says that God made Him who knew no sin to be sin. Can God's holiness be stained in such a way? If sin is everything God is not, what does it mean when it says God made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us? Am I looking for answers that destroy what you believe? NO, NO, NO, NO, NO x infinity. If you believe Jesus is God, you are on the right track (obviously.) If you believe Jesus came in the flesh, you are on the right track, according to John. This is to question the extraneous. The nuance. It is the reason I don't like named/titled beliefs. They are rigid and have no flexibility.
Do you agree with this from Got ?

I think became a sin offering better describes the passage in light of the entire NT.

God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God” (2 Corinthians 5:21). This verse has inspired a great deal of debate among theologians over the years. There is no doubt that the verse expresses a unique truth about Jesus: He became sin for us. While on the one hand the verse states the simple gospel truth that Jesus took upon Himself the sins of all who would ever believe in Him, it also makes a somewhat enigmatic statement. How exactly did God make Jesus to be sin for us?

Perhaps the best way to understand He became sin for us is to begin with what it does not mean. First, it does not mean that Jesus actually became sin itself. To posit such a theory denies all of Scripture, which clearly presents Jesus Christ as the One in whom there is no sin (1 John 3:5), who commits no sin (1 Peter 2:22), and who is holy, blameless, and pure (Mark 1:24; Acts 3:14; Revelation 3:7). For Jesus to “become” sin, even for a moment, would mean He ceased to be God. But Scripture presents Jesus as “the same yesterday, today and forever” (Hebrews 13:8). He was and is and always will be the Second Person of the Godhead (John 1:1).

Second, the idea that Jesus became sin for us does not mean that He became a sinner, not even for a moment. Some have said that Christ may be considered as the greatest of sinners, because all the sins of mankind (or at least of the elect) became His own sins. When Christ suffered in our place and died for us, He bore the punishment for our sins in His own body (1 Peter 2:24). But Jesus at no time became a sinner personally.

Third, it does not mean He was guilty of actual sin. No one is truly guilty who has not transgressed the law of God, which Jesus never did. If He were guilty, then He deserved to die, and His death could have no more merit than that of any other guilty person. Even the Pharisees who sent Jesus to Calvary knew He was guiltless: “And though they found in him no guilt worthy of death, they asked Pilate to have him executed” (Acts 13:28).

If He became sin for us does not mean Jesus was sin, or a sinner, or guilty of sin, the proper interpretation can only be found in the doctrine of imputation. This is confirmed by the second part of 2 Corinthians 5:21: “So that in him we might become the righteousness of God.” To impute something is to ascribe or attribute it to someone. On the cross, our sin was imputed to Christ. That is how Christ paid our sin debt to God. He had no sin in Himself, but our sin was imputed (attributed) to Him so, as He suffered, He took the just penalty that our sin deserves. At the same time, through faith, Christ’s righteousness is imputed to us. Now we can stand before God sinless, just as Jesus is sinless. We are not righteous in ourselves; rather, Christ’s righteousness is applied to us.

So, “God made him . . . to be sin for us” means that Jesus, although sinless, was treated as if He were not. Although He remained holy, He was regarded as guilty of all the sin in the world. Through imputation of our sin to Him, He became our substitute and the recipient of God’s judgment against sin. Having saved those who believe, He is now “our righteousness, holiness and redemption” (1 Corinthians 1:30)
 
Good post I’ll try and respond after work.
Understand it is questions which can shape how far one goes with a belief. I believe in the hypostatic union, however, I lean towards there is more to it then is covered simply by hypostatic union. Just that there is a little more to it. Hence the questions surrounding it. I go far enough to provide possible answers to what Jesus said, understanding that that may not be perfect. Still in sight of the full understanding that Jesus is God and man (100% each), and that He was born that way. Nestorians beliefs are given that he believed Jesus was fully and only man when He was born, up until He was baptized by John the Baptist. His divinity is pictured in the dove descending upon Him, and it left just before He was crucified. That is what I recall from the little research I did on Nestorianism. However, they also said no one is sure whether that is exactly what he believed/taught or not, because this comes from people who didn't like him.

So you are not reading what I believe, but the questions that I have that shape thoughts not beliefs.
 
People who deny PSA have to deny one of the following propositions:

1. I deserve the wrath of God for my sin.
2. Jesus took what I deserved for me.


It really is just that simple.
 
Do you agree with this from Got ?

I think became a sin offering better describes the passage in light of the entire NT.

God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God” (2 Corinthians 5:21). This verse has inspired a great deal of debate among theologians over the years. There is no doubt that the verse expresses a unique truth about Jesus: He became sin for us. While on the one hand the verse states the simple gospel truth that Jesus took upon Himself the sins of all who would ever believe in Him, it also makes a somewhat enigmatic statement. How exactly did God make Jesus to be sin for us?
That is a good question. (breaking it up a little so you don't lose me, and I hopefully don't lose you... that is your train of thought.) I would say the gospel truth is, sin was imputed to Him, and righteousness imputed to us, covering both ends of the verse.
Perhaps the best way to understand He became sin for us is to begin with what it does not mean. First, it does not mean that Jesus actually became sin itself. To posit such a theory denies all of Scripture, which clearly presents Jesus Christ as the One in whom there is no sin (1 John 3:5), who commits no sin (1 Peter 2:22), and who is holy, blameless, and pure (Mark 1:24; Acts 3:14; Revelation 3:7). For Jesus to “become” sin, even for a moment, would mean He ceased to be God. But Scripture presents Jesus as “the same yesterday, today and forever” (Hebrews 13:8). He was and is and always will be the Second Person of the Godhead (John 1:1).
This is why I stress more the humanity. As someone I read (can't remember who) said, it was the sacrifice (humanity) and the High Priest (divinity) in one body. The High Priest santifying the sacrifice, for there has to be a High Priest to sanctify the sacrifice of atonement. Part of that is the High Priest imputing sin onto the sacrifce. In the Old Testament this is shown by the High Priest laying his hands on the scapegoat and imputing the sins of the community onto the scapegoat. The sacrifice being the visible representation of what is happening, and the scapegoat being released into the wilderness to never be seen again being figurative. (I could be completely wrong about that, but as I have come to understand. Not some solid belief, but an understanding.)
Second, the idea that Jesus became sin for us does not mean that He became a sinner, not even for a moment. Some have said that Christ may be considered as the greatest of sinners, because all the sins of mankind (or at least of the elect) became His own sins. When Christ suffered in our place and died for us, He bore the punishment for our sins in His own body (1 Peter 2:24). But Jesus at no time became a sinner personally.
He can figuratively be considered a sinner, but that, as you say, is not reality. The sins of mankind did not become His own sins, they were imputed to Him. Guilt is not imputed. (I think I mentioned this before.) Jesus was never a sinner, He just had sin imputed to Him. The scapegoat of the sacrifice was completely innocent of sin. So God sees the sin on Jesus, that which was impugned onto Him, and that which was remissed by Jesus' sacrifice, the shedding of His blood. At no point did Jesus become a sinner. He was always innocent, and as such, the sacrifice satisfied the Father. And through the sacrifice He reconciled with those who believed, were believing, and would believe. God was in that sacrifice reconciling with His elect.
Third, it does not mean He was guilty of actual sin. No one is truly guilty who has not transgressed the law of God, which Jesus never did. If He were guilty, then He deserved to die, and His death could have no more merit than that of any other guilty person. Even the Pharisees who sent Jesus to Calvary knew He was guiltless: “And though they found in him no guilt worthy of death, they asked Pilate to have him executed” (Acts 13:28).
Again, as mentioned earlier, sin is imputed, not guilt. Before God, He may have seen sin, but there was no guilt. I'm not sure how to clearly state it. Our sin (not guilt) was imputed to Christ, while His righteousness was imputed to us. As we no longer had sin, guilt is gone. As the sin was ours, Jesus was never guilty, though He was executed/put to death by God as though He was. It is His innocence that sealed the sacrifice of atonement. It was His humanity that died, His divinity that brough His spirit to life in death, and the Father who raised Him from the dead to show to the world that His Son's sacrifice satisfied His justice.
If He became sin for us does not mean Jesus was sin, or a sinner, or guilty of sin, the proper interpretation can only be found in the doctrine of imputation. This is confirmed by the second part of 2 Corinthians 5:21: “So that in him we might become the righteousness of God.” To impute something is to ascribe or attribute it to someone. On the cross, our sin was imputed to Christ. That is how Christ paid our sin debt to God. He had no sin in Himself, but our sin was imputed (attributed) to Him so, as He suffered, He took the just penalty that our sin deserves. At the same time, through faith, Christ’s righteousness is imputed to us. Now we can stand before God sinless, just as Jesus is sinless. We are not righteous in ourselves; rather, Christ’s righteousness is applied to us.
I finally get here to find out you basically agree. At least you see some of my reasoning in it. However, I see this imputation of sin and righteousness as the substitution in substitutionary atonement. With penal, I put emphasis on Jesus taking our penalty of death in fulfillment of the law of death, something we could never fulfill. There wasn't some ransom. Satan has no part in the endeavor. This stands between God and man. He stands between God and man, the man Christ Jesus. (Who is also fully God.) Our mediator and our advocate. The wrath of God has a place, but I don't believe there has to be major emphasis on God's wrath, just an understanding that it is there. How, I believe, is outside of the scope of this course... (Sorry, am studying for CCNA, and this shows up too often in the book.)
So, “God made him . . . to be sin for us” means that Jesus, although sinless, was treated as if He were not. Although He remained holy, He was regarded as guilty of all the sin in the world. Through imputation of our sin to Him, He became our substitute and the recipient of God’s judgment against sin. Having saved those who believe, He is now “our righteousness, holiness and redemption” (1 Corinthians 1:30)
I'll be honest, with something you probably don't have an issue with. I stop at imputation. I don't try to force too much into it for fear of stepping too far outside the bounds of scripture. (Which is funny, I finished reading the statement as I was writing and again... basically the same thoughts.) I will tell you the same thing as I mentioned a few years ago. Don't get stuck up on the wrath of God. Just understand it is there in some way even if you can't see it or understand it, and God didn't violate Himself in any way in the process. It's like Jesus talking to the people when He asked them which work He did that they sought to stone Him. In the end He basically said, if you can't believe/accept what He said (that He is God basically), at least believe in the works He does of the Father.

" 37 If I do not do the works of My Father, do not believe Me; 38 but if I do them, though you do not believe Me, believe the works, so that you may know and continue knowing that the Father is in Me, and I in the Father.” "

Knowing that the Father is in Me and I in the Father as Jesus says is deeper, runs deeper then simple belief. That trumps their not believing Him with what He said. Why? Believing the works is tantamount to tacitly/indirectly accepting what Jesus said because "the Father is in Me, and I in the Father." And I have come to believe that to KNOW means more than simply to BELIEVE. Just as I think to KNOW means more than simply to THINK. So to say, I know you are smart, or I think you are smart is, by nuance, two different things, with "I know you are smart" meaning more than "I think you are smart".
 
People who deny PSA have to deny one of the following propositions:

1. I deserve the wrath of God for my sin.
2. Jesus took what I deserved for me.


It really is just that simple.
Only in your imagination.

Jesus took what I deserve as a substitution for my sins.
 
All unbelievers deserve Gods wrath but I’m a believer

Next fallacy
You were not always a believer. Consider what Jesus says of the Jews/Israel in Romans. They were cut off in unbelief, which makes then unbelievers. However, if they accept and believe, then God will graft them back into their natural tree. As such, you were once an unbeliever, but God made you a believer.
 
You were not always a believer. Consider what Jesus says of the Jews/Israel in Romans. They were cut off in unbelief, which makes then unbelievers. However, if they accept and believe, then God will graft them back into their natural tree. As such, you were once an unbeliever, but God made you a believer.
Here are the facts from both testaments.

Not once will you ever find Gods wrath falling on anyone God declares are righteous, holy, His children, believers etc

It always falls on those who are unbelievers , unrighteous, wicked, evil, reprobates etc…

Nowhere does scripture say Gods wrath falls on Christ or Christians.
 
People who deny PSA have to deny one of the following propositions:

1. I deserve the wrath of God for my sin.
2. Jesus took what I deserved for me.


It really is just that simple.

Not really. This isn't simple. You're trying to oversimplify the issue to your benefit.

1. Adam and Eve didn't deserve the wrath of God for their sin. They did nothing worthy of damnation.
2. Jesus died for more than just Adam and Eve.

What you believe about this doesn't match the details of the circumstances.
 
Here are the facts from both testaments.

Not once will you ever find Gods wrath falling on anyone God declares are righteous, holy, His children, believers etc

It always falls on those who are unbelievers , unrighteous, wicked, evil, reprobates etc…

Nowhere does scripture say Gods wrath falls on Christ or Christians.

Eph 6:4 And, ye fathers, provoke not your children to wrath: but bring them up in the nurture and admonition of the Lord.

It is not within the nature of God to "provoke" children to wrath.....

Act 17:27 That they should seek the Lord, if haply they might feel after him, and find him, though he be not far from every one of us:
Act 17:28 For in him we live, and move, and have our being; as certain also of your own poets have said, For we are also his offspring.

He isn't far from any of us....
 
Back
Top Bottom