An honest inquiry into the nature of Christology by a Trinitarian

Diserner

Well-known member
As a Trinitarian I can honestly recognize some logical problems with Christology as classically stated. Why wasn’t Christ more clear about the formulation we’ve come to hold, and why would he leave us logical dilemmas concerning it? Honestly these logical problems can seem strange and daunting and I’ve found fault with a lot of classic Trinitarian definition and jargon matching up with exactly how Scripture has presented itself to me. Someone may find interest in some modifications I’ve felt I’ve had to make to these standard explanations and enjoy my journey of thought.

I want to be up front about my methodology. It may be considered that in the end, one cannot understand the Bible by logic or the mind alone, and taken without a lens or key of revelation, we will constantly find what seems to us contradictions or obscurity in the Bible. I will up front confess that I completely and firmly hold to the idea of revelation alone, and that conversely the mind or logic, however you may understand that, must be insufficient for understanding spiritual truths. In that case, I would consider it urgent that all our study not only be bathed in intellectual arguments, but deep prayer and sincerity about the matter. I would never hide the fact that my personal beliefs are based on actual experience and I think it is definitely Biblical to do so.

I believe God is one being containing or pertaining to three individual personalities such that whatever makes up the three does indeed separate the oneness without completely losing it. Although I feel I can hold this idea in my thoughts, it does seem like a real paradox; yet I would say we find other such paradoxes in Scripture in the oneness of Christ and his bride, the unity of humanity in Adam, the unity of believers in the body of Christ, and the unity of those joined in marriage. Although the Scripture clearly portrays each individual as a real and separate individual, it also just as clearly portrays the whole as one true and viable entity, thought of in the singular; and forcefully so that it seems more than just mere metaphor. I was raised in an individualistic Western culture and it’s personally difficult for me logically and emotionally to consider myself in a corporate unity, so I don't feel I easily grasp it.

So where I have problems with the classic formulation or definitions I’ve seen, is the lack of ontological change in the incarnation. I just honestly can’t see that in the Scripture, which seems to very vividly and markedly describe a real change in the nature of Christ. I wouldn’t say I knew exactly what that change was, but it was certainly a change if I am going to be honest with the text and not come with a precommitment to make it fit what I have already decided. Jesus is said to have “become” something, to have “left” something, to have “emptied” himself of something, to have “taken on” something, to have “impoverished” himself in some way. This is dishonest speech when applied to no real ontological change. Jesus uses descriptions of locality and identity such as “I came from X” or “I know X” and uses time tenses such as “I shared (past tense) glory” in a definite time in the past that he did not share in the same way currently. This is misleading and disingenuous speech if we are to assume that an omni-being is speaking.

Sure, we can attempt to explain this away as heavy metaphor for a human nature manifesting itself, and thus the “real” Christ is the divine side of him, separate from all this human nature talk. Intuitively Trinitarians gravitate to descriptions that include some kind of temporary “setting aside” of divine attributes, whether we call it “veiling” them or making them “dormant,” basically any speech that turns them off without completely eliminating them. And this idea can preserve the whole structure of a classic understanding of the Trinity, giving the third person two natures and localizing him in the divine side. But the question I stared frankly in the face is, is that really what Scripture is doing here, making the man Jesus Christ just an “add-on” nature to a divine person? I could not walk away honestly feeling the Bible does that, and so somewhere I had to rework my understanding.

I believe the case for Jesus being divine is unavoidable, and not just “god-like” but actually pertaining to the uncreated Creator. Jesus is said to be exalted to a point that would be completely inappropriate, idolatrous and blasphemous for any entity, even the most powerful angel or holy man ever created. Jesus is said to accomplish things that no creature has the resources or ability to do, to expiate an infinite crime against the holiness of God, to contain the concept of life itself inside of him, to conquer death by his own power, and even be an integral part in creating all things. These are things a mere creature cannot do, and no one should ever be convinced that they could. But the question that still haunts all these ideas unassailably is: How can God becoming a man to die for the sins of the world mean he experiences no real ontological change?

Where you see the Unitarian always gravitating towards in their “gotcha” questions and problems, is always this singular problem of a logical contradiction in one thing consisting of two contradictory properties: something that is genuinely a creation contradicts in its most essential ontological nature with the properties of something that is genuinely uncreated, such we find as much incompatibility as a square being a circle or a bachelor being married. We lose all sense of comprehensibility or unity of thought by positing definitions that no longer seem to fit. And every Trinitarian I’ve ever seen anyway, would willingly admit to a very high degree of mystery and a limitedness to really fully comprehend it; and sometimes even, when cornered particularly badly, just completely punt to mystery.

So when Jesus Christ says “I came from the Father into the world,” whom (or what?) might we ask is speaking under classic Trinitarian formula: a human nature that is not a localized person? A divine omni-being with no limits or physicality? A combined entity with contradicting properties? An add-on nature using “baby talk” that doesn’t literally mean anything we normally understand it to mean? All these options proved unacceptable to me if I were going to not simply find comfort in my previous understanding, but give the real, honest and utmost reverence to the words I read in the Holy Scripture.
 
I have come to believe the Bible describes a real ontological change in the divine nature, such that what Jesus is after the incarnation is not exactly what Jesus is before the incarnation. I do not believe he lost his divine nature, but I believe becoming a created thing in some way radically altered it. This seems to violate standard definitions of God’s nature being unchangeable, but I must submit those standard definitions to the veracity of what the Bible is actually saying to me. If I am going to throw around the words “God became a man” as a Trinitarian, I will not then hypocritically backpedal every time a logical objection comes up, and say that God really can’t become a man, that’s impossible, all God did was add on a human nature to his unchanged divine personhood. That is not in any honestly conceivable way a description of the idea of one thing being transformed into another thing. The Bible is clear: Jesus left heaven, Jesus left the Divine attributes, Jesus left the glory of the Father, Jesus became a human being, Jesus lived a completely human life, and that is impossible for a being that is left unchanged ontologically, and I think in the end that idea devalues and denigrates the sacrifice, the cost, and the humiliation that the Second Person of the Trinity experienced in a real ontological change of some kind when he became an actual human being and died for our sins.

I don't think Jesus was a non-personal nature attached by association the Person of the Son—it was not God's remote avatar that died for my sins. The Person of Jesus under this system experiences no real change, yet we are told Jesus left somewhere, became something, and was going back to somewhere—he became poor for our sakes, and it is not "poor" to retain everything you already have under any definition, not even the humiliation of associating a creaturely nature, which reduces no quality of the divine nature. The Person of Jesus was not in heaven experiencing glory and power where he watched his avatar non-personal nature suffer for my sins—Jesus, himself, experienced that. Jesus did not use language that removed his identity or personhood from his humanity, but consistently and boldly said "I am, I was, I will." One attribute of God is self-defining, and some things might to us seem to transcend the logic we feel capable of. I think Functional Kenosis is the most accurate correlation to the Biblical data set—and God self-defines in Scripture as having the ability to change, to self-limit, and not function from his attributes for any set time. God really did become a man, not just a personless nature, to redeem the world. And you will notice the language of Functional Kenosis even among those who deny or even condemn it—simply because it is more Biblical.

Do I then think Jesus is no longer God? No. I believe Jesus retains the divine nature completely, and is so-called “fully” God, but in some kind of changed state where he really experienced in his local identity what it means to be a human. And that formulation I find to be far more Biblical than the other, despite anyone that declares me off the reservation of orthodoxy. (I want to recognize I'm not the first to think of this idea, nor am I claiming to be, but I did come to it on my own!) We should be true to the Bible and not handed-down tradition, and I respect any man who would willingly be criticized or even ostracized for trying to be honest with the Bible.

God bless you for reading and considering, I pray he has mercy on us all and gives us all a more accurate understanding of himself. All thoughts are welcome.
 
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Can you define what this passage means in light of your above claims of " changing " ?

Hebrews 13:8- Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever.

@sethproton
 
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Can you define what this passage means in light of your above claims of " changing " ?

Hebrews 13:8- Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever.

Absolutely, and I consider this the single most difficult verse to deal with, so it is very perceptive and thoughtful of you to point it out.

I would have to point out—that you notice that "yesterday" is a set time in the past, not infinite past.

If Paul (whom I think authored Hebrews), meant to say Jesus Christ has never experienced any change, he could find a better word than a limited finite "yesterday." Yesterday expresses a limited time in the past, a set time backwards—not infinite time.

Instead he could easily say, "Jesus Christ is the same from the foundations of the world," or "Jesus Christ is the same from all eternity," or "Jesus Christ is always the same from age to age."

Why the specific word "yesterday" which expresses limitation in its meaning?

So the change the Lord made to become one of us, is going to last into "forever," the eternity future, unlike some who say Jesus is no longer a human being now, when he has returned to his divine attributes.
 
There has been a whole spectrum of views on Christology in church history, and it is interesting to see people wrestle with ideas. Rather than just latch on dogmatically to something that can make us feel secure and "more right" than our fellow Christians, I would encourage a diversity of thought bathed in constant prayer. From Nestorianism (2 persons) to Eutychianism (one mixed nature) the terms and names can seem confusing to the uninitiated, but I have found it fairly helpful in doctrinal matters to try to boil things down to essential ideas. Historically the church has been eager to condemn and ostracize each other, rather than build and edify each other in a loving discussion. Classic orthodoxy (if we can say there is such a thing) has settled on, "2 natures in 1 person," but I have some problems with their view labeled as "the Hypostatic Union." The problem I have is they centralize the person in the divine nature, and thus they are left with kind of a "personless" human nature, to avoid a lot of logical problems of God dying or being limited.

The Biblical account to me describes a kind of transference from a pre-existing state into humanity, and as such this does not describe an "addition" to the divine nature by "association" as orthodoxy will commonly describe it, to "protect" God from becoming things that create logical problems. Rather than a human nature tacked on to a divine nature with a divine person, I see the Bible describing a divine person becoming a human person on this earth. This is called Functional Kenosis or Semi-Kenosis, as opposed to Full Kenosis where Jesus no longer possesses anything divine at all, and it is what I personally subscribe to, but many have called me a heretic for it. I also disagree with the orthodox position that Christ has 2 wills, one in each of his natures, as there is 1 will per person by definition. Jesus did not say, "Not my wills be done." As such this would encompass a divine person becoming a human person, while still retaining a recessive divinity as it were, a veiled divine nature, temporarily turned off for his human life. This is the only workable Biblical model of the incarnation that fits the data.

The problem with positing that Christ retained all his divine attributes as they were—assuming of course the clear description of his preexistent divinity in the bosom of the Father being the vessel through which all things were created—is we cannot then describe the incarnation as any change in Christ and be honest about the metaphor. Scripture is replete with metaphorical language, and I’d never want to just be woodenly literal about things, but metaphors are in fact intended to convey meaning—they are not meaningless, they are meant to say something, to describe something. If Scripture describes the incarnation in the language of change, it must mean something. We have many clear descriptions of change in Jesus becoming poor, coming down from heaven, leaving the Father’s glory, tabernacling among men, becoming flesh, taking the form of a servant, leaving one’s father and mother in the mystery of Christ and the Church, suffering death, humbling himself to be punished for someone else’s sins. So what could it mean?

The are two difficult things logically with the idea that Jesus is both God and man simultaneously. One is that the attributes of both contradict each other fundamentally. The other difficulty is that the attributes of God are not subject to change or alteration, normally speaking—what God is, he must always be and have been. So then, if we say God does not change, that logically means—whether you like it or not—the incarnation was not a change in God. Extrapolating further out, that means what God was after the incarnation, is what God always had to be before the incarnation. Continuing with the logic of this, it means God had to have always been a man. It seems to me this a real rock and a hard place, if we are not going to introduce, like Einstein, a spiritual “fudge factor” in our logical equations to just “make it work,” by just talking so complicated for so long that now NOT X and X can both be true simultaneously without really fully admitting it, much like compatibilists do with free will and determinism; that is called "doublespeak" and "cognitive dissonance."

Only one model incorporates all the Biblical data without sacrificing any of the others, and that is God using some special ability to both retain the availability and reality of his attributes, without actually using or manifesting them. You will noticed this kind of speech even among the standard Trinitarian views, expressed in many different kinds of ways: Jesus aside his divine priveleges, became one of us, veiled his glory in flesh, all kinds of descriptions like this. But if God has this ability to self-limit, this makes all the things Jesus said actually factually true, when he doesn’t know something or expresses limitations. In other words, God allowed himself to experience becoming a man in some real way, without completely losing his divinity or attributes, but merely by his own power and virtue of an ability beyond our comprehension, letting them temporarily lie dormant and veiled, so that his identity has a true human experience and experiences real change. This is the only satisfactory model that fits all the Biblical data. We can describe that change in many various ways, and if you listen for it, you will here it constantly even in people who deny all kenosis.

So I subscribe to this "Functional Kenosis" over the standard "Hypostatic Union." The Hypostatic Union is a different model of incarnation, where Jesus maintains the functioning of all divine attributes, and has a mere nature in his humanity just attribute to him by fiat. But what real kenosis means is that God had the ability to no longer function from divine attributes without losing them, thus truly being able to become a human. Otherwise there is no conceivable way of describing God as "emptying himself," it's "empty" language with no emptying. So instead of the Hypostatic's remote avatar and non-personal nature dying for sins while the real Jesus is glorious, happy and untouched in heaven, kenosis has the actual Person of God leaving heaven and suffering and dying for our sins, as Scripture describes real change in the Word.

The whole arguments of "God can't change" are based on wrong premises, taking human logic and trying to "figure" God out. God is self-defining, and only he can tell us what he can or cannot do. Some will bail at any violation of their understanding of logic, as if God owes us the ability to understand everything, but this insistence that God must have given us logic to know all truth violates many Scriptures and boils down to human pride. So if the Bible describes Christ as "becoming poor" it really means something. Christ suffered the fate of a sinner: not merely being poofed out of existence, nor soul sleeping, nor ceasing to exist, nor taking a dirt nap. We are told God can do things beyond our understanding.

And this is also how Christ suffered the wrath of God against all ungodliness of men, the only fitting fate and punishment for how evil all sin really is, the fury and indignation of God against his adversaries, the torment in the presence of a holy God who hates sin to the core of his being, and Christ having an infinite capacity can experience in a moment of time what would take us an eternity. Spiritual death is separation from experiencing the relationally good aspects of God, not mere cessation of existence, nor separation from God (which is impossible), nor separating of soul and body (which is no punishment at all but merely a change in mode). The argument that Christ experiencing wrath "destroys" the union of the Trinity is silly, because it is limiting what God is able to do. And for the punishment of sin to be mere cessation of existence violates the severity of evil and devaluing God. And the whole point of atonement is rectifying the justice of God upholding his worth and holiness, so it must be a perfect correspondence of what sinner and Christ experience, no special exemptions, or reduction of sentence for Christ. Never does God violate justice as even Job realized, so that he would somehow accept less than what the sinner deserved in Christ's experience. The attributes of love, generosity, mercy, goodness, and kindness, will still never allow violating justice. God is a love that must always remain holy. "Love does not rejoice in evil."
 
What then is the issue (succinctly)?

Sure, thanks for asking.

Basically the Hypostatic Union makes the humanity of Christ a personless add-on nature that is ascribed to the Divine Person by association.

I find that does not match the Biblical data, and also devalues the real sacrifice Jesus made, in that the omni-Jesus merely watches a personless nature die for my sins.

Rather, the Bible gives me description of change, emptying, becoming flesh, leaving heaven, becoming poor, real sacrifice, and so what Jesus did was self-limit his divine attributes to experience a real human life and become a real human person, where the human Jesus saying "I am" really means the Person of Jesus.

This view is called Functional Kenosis, and it is not "Full Kenosis," where Jesus loses his divinity.

That's as succinct as I can possibly make it, the rest just fleshes that out.... no pun intended.
 
I agree, but I will say He was also aware (and taught) that He is God.

Completely agree.

I do think Christ was still fully God, and even used his divine attributes on the Cross for expiation of sins.

But I do not think any miracles were done in his own divinity, but rather through dependence on the Spirit, as he had to fulfill the Law as a human.
 
Completely agree.

I do think Christ was still fully God, and even used his divine attributes on the Cross for expiation of sins.

But I do not think any miracles were done in his own divinity, but rather through dependence on the Spirit, as he had to fulfill the Law as a human.

Do you think He always did things through the Spirit?
 
Sure, thanks for asking.

Basically the Hypostatic Union makes the humanity of Christ a personless add-on nature that is ascribed to the Divine Person by association.
Otherwise, you would have a dual personality who suffers from Multiple Personality Disorder which is the foundation of the Nestorian heresy.

That would border on schizophrenia. You know what they say about schizophrenia: you're never alone if you're a schizophrenic.
I find that does not match the Biblical data, and also devalues the real sacrifice Jesus made, in that the omni-Jesus merely watches a personless nature die for my sins.
Nope, human nature was an integral part of Jesus as evidenced by his anxiety and tears. I'm sure you know that. So Jesus did not "merely watch a personless nature die for my sins". It's undeniable that He was very much involved in that.
Rather, the Bible gives me description of change, emptying, becoming flesh, leaving heaven, becoming poor, real sacrifice, and so what Jesus did was self-limit his divine attributes to experience a real human life and become a real human person, where the human Jesus saying "I am" really means the Person of Jesus.
The "I Am" is the Uncreated Word of God, who is the same One Person who embodies Jesus.
This view is called Functional Kenosis, and it is not "Full Kenosis," where Jesus loses his divinity.
As the Great "I Am", Jesus never lost his divinity at any time whatsoever.
That's as succinct as I can possibly make it, the rest just fleshes that out.... no pun intended.
Looking forward to further discussions.
 
Yet He said I forgive you of your sins not the Father forgives you. He said on many occasions that He healed men by His own authority.

For this is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. (Matt. 26:28 NKJ)
 
Nope, human nature was an integral part of Jesus as evidenced by his anxiety and tears. I'm sure you know that. So Jesus did not "merely watch a personless nature die for my sins". It's undeniable that He was very much involved in that.

He was more than "involved" in that. The whole word "involved" distances his personal experience.

He WAS that, he LIVED that, this was his personal experience.

the same One Person who embodies Jesus.

He more than "embodies" Jesus.

He IS Jesus.

The Word BECAME flesh!
 
Yet He said I forgive you of your sins not the Father forgives you. He said on many occasions that He healed men by His own authority.
Notice how Jesus gave the Apostles the authority to forgive. He breathed on them the Holy Spirit. The thing to remember is that the Trinity never works individually. They always work together - Perichoresis. I'm sure you've heard the term before.
 
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