An Article on free will

[Selah]

Many scholars still debate ONE verse because of ONE word IN that verse-

Rom 5:12 Death Came through Adam but Life Comes through Christ
Because of this, just as sin entered into the world through one man, and death through sin, so also death spread to all people because all sinned.

Not to put you to the test-dokimazo-did these sin IN Adam or OUT of Adam?

God bless sorella.

J.

in Adam. …but ultimately, it was Satan the serpent’s fault.

 

[Johann]

I just believe that Romans 8:3 emphasizes the weakness of the law due to our flesh; but through faith in Christ, we can repent of our sins and receive eternal life. The price Jesus paid on the cross forgives all charges against us, and Abraham's righteousness came through his faith in God, making him worthy of eternal life.

Romans 8:3-4 (NKJV) 3 For what the law could not do in that it was weak through the flesh, God [did] by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, on account of sin: He condemned sin in the flesh, 4 that the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.

I love the book of Romans @Selah.

And Isaiah 53.

Johann.

 

[TomL]

God has me corresponding about God's control over we who are forgiven of sin. You can hide behind your argument, there, if you free-will want.

The Holy Spirit reveals to me that the love of Christ controls us Christians (2 Corinthians 5:14), so my faith is the work of God because the Word of God tells me “This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent” (John 6:29).

According to your Free-willian Philosophy, you are free to deny the above blessings by saying they are not directed to you.

Importantly, the Lord says "by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned" (Matthew 12:37).

Lord and God Jesus Christ declares His Sovereignty as shown in His sayings above, and He amplifies the treasure of the Word of God with "He who rejects Me and does not receive My sayings, has one who judges him; the word I spoke is what will judge him at the last day" (John 12:48).

You still ignore the connection between impart and infuse

You totally ignored this showing the connection between impart and infuse

View attachment 1701

Now let's look at the definition of infuse

To cause a person to become filled with a certain quality or principle

That matches your interpretation of Eph 2:8.

Where God causes man to be filled with faith.

Your theology teaches an infused faith.
and simply repeating your interpretation does nothing at all to prove your interpretation


John Calvin: “People who infer from this passage that faith is God’s gift are mistaken, for Christ does not show here what God produces in us, but what God wants and requires from us.” (The Crossway Classic Commentaries: John; Crossway Books; Wheaton, IL; 1994, p.393)



This is the work of God. This is the thing that will be acceptable to God, or which you are to do in order to be saved. Jesus did not tell them they had nothing to do, or that they were to sit down and wait, but that there was a work to perform, and that was a duty that was imperative. It was to believe on the Messiah. This is the work which sinners are to do; and doing this they will be saved, for Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth, Ro. 10:4.11 Albert Barnes, Notes on the New Testament: Luke & John (ed. Robert Frew; London: Blackie & Son, 1884–1885), 244.



Believe. Faith is put as a moral act or work. The work of God is to believe. Faith includes all the works which God requires. The Jews’ question contemplates numerous works. Jesus’ answer directs them to one work. Canon Westcott justly observes that “this simple formula contains the complete solution of the relation of faith and works.”11 Marvin Richardson Vincent, Word Studies in the New Testament (vol. 2; New York: Charles Scribner’s Sons, 1887), 148–149.



The meaning is not,—that faith is wrought in us by God, is the work of God; but that the truest way of working the work of God is to believe on Him whom He hath sent.11 Henry Alford, Alford’s Greek Testament: An Exegetical and Critical Commentary (vol. 1; Grand Rapids, MI: Guardian Press, 1976), 761.



Messianic work.

28. τί ποιῶμεν …; What must we do (v. 5) that we may work? Perhaps they understood Him to mean that they must earn what they desire; certainly they see that Christ’s words have a moral meaning; they must do the works required by God. But how?

29. τὸ ἔργον. They probably thought of works of the law, tithes, sacrifices, &c. He tells them of one work, one moral act, from which all the rest derive their value, continuous belief (πιστεύητε, not πιστεύσητε) in Him whom God has sent. Comp. Acts 16:31. On ἵνα and ἀπέστειλεν see on 1:8, 33, 4:47, 17:3.1

1 A. Plummer, The Gospel according to S. John (Cambridge Greek Testament for Schools and Colleges; Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1896), 155.



τὰ ἔργα τοῦ θεοῦ must not be taken to mean ‘the works which God works,’ but, as in Jer. 48:10 (31:10 LXX): 1 Cor. 15:58, the works well pleasing to God.11 Henry Alford, Alford’s Greek Testament: An Exegetical and Critical Commentary (vol. 1; Grand Rapids, MI: Guardian Press, 1976), 760–761.



Ἀπεκρίθη … καὶ εἶπεν 1:21, 50; 2:18. Jesus contrasts the one “work” that God actually requires (τὸ ἔργον τοῦ θεοῦ)—namely (epex. ἵνα), constant belief (πιστεύητε, pres. subjunc.) in his accredited messenger—with the many “works” the Jews imagined God demanded11 Murray J. Harris, John (Exegetical Guide to the Greek New Testament; B&H Academic, 2015), 131.



The Lord deals with the error and the truth in the question which was put to Him. In the one work which God requires of man and man owes to God, all fragmentary and partial works are included. It is a true work as answering to man’s will, but it issues in that which is not a work. This is the work of God, that ye believe on … Comp. 1 John 3:23 (his commandment).11 Brooke Foss Westcott and Arthur Westcott, eds., The Gospel according to St. John Introduction and Notes on the Authorized Version (Classic Commentaries on the Greek New Testament; London: J. Murray, 1908), 101.



29 Jesus replaces their "works of God" with the singular "work of God." But one thing is needful. And this one thing, he makes plain, is faith. They must believe on him (for the construction see on 1:12; the present tense here denotes the continuing attitude, not the once-for-all decision). In view of the controversy over faith and works reflected in the Epistle of James, it is interesting to find Jesus describing "work" as believing: God does not require that we pile up merits to obtain a heavenly credit. He requires that we trust him. The "work of God" means that which God requires of us. New international commentary of the New Testament



Yeshua-Jesus is telling them how to receive eternal life. The people then ask Yeshua-Jesus, [57]“What must we do, to be doing the works of God?” The response of the people is referring to how they can work and receive eternal life which is salvation. Yeshua-Jesus sets the record straight by answering, [58]“This is the work of God, that you believe in him whom he has sent.” In other words, Yeshua-Jesus tells them that if they want to do the works of God for eternal life then believe in him who God sent. That is the work needed for salvation, believe him, Yeshua-Jesus. Yeshua-Jesus did not tell them that the works of God are only for those who are chosen or elected. Then the people, they want to see a sign so that they can believe in him.



John 6:30 (KJV 1900) — 30 They said therefore unto him, What sign shewest thou then, that we may see, and believe thee?



Garza, Dr. Al. Calvinism Challenged: How The Hebrew Bible, Jewish Sources, Jesus, The Apostles and Paul Refute Calvinism. . Sefer Press Publishing. Kindle Edition.

 

[Johann]

in Adam. …but ultimately, it was Satan the serpent’s fault.

Bingo! Let's just stay right here.

Coffee time.

Johann.

 

[TomL]

https://theses.gla.ac.uk/82963/1/2022PattersonMThR.pdf

I went through much trouble to find this for you @TomL.

J.

Thank you

Noted in this work is

Taking ἐφʼ ᾧ as a causal conjunction (“because”) is by far the most common reading. Many scholars and grammarians take this view for granted226 and its popularity can be seen by its dominance in many modern English versions.227

 

[TomL]

Excursus on the Syntax of ἐφ’ ᾧ in Romans 5:12:

The phrase ἐφ’ ᾧ is composed of the preposition ἐπί with the prepositional prefix contracted before the relative pronoun ᾧ, the dative singular of the relative pronoun ὅς. However, crucial to interpretation is the grammatical gender and case of ᾧ. Here, ᾧ is neuter dative singular, not masculine, and thus does not directly refer back to Ἀδάμ (which is masculine) or any other masculine antecedent.

This grammatical feature challenges the interpretation of ἐφ’ ᾧ as “in whom,” which would presuppose a masculine antecedent—typically Ἀδάμ. Since the relative pronoun does not match Ἀδάμ in gender, the interpretation “in whom all sinned” is grammatically strained.

Instead, the neuter ᾧ is more naturally understood to refer back to the preceding clause δι’ ἑνὸς ἀνθρώπου ἡ ἁμαρτία εἰς τὸν κόσμον εἰσῆλθεν, or more abstractly to the entrance of sin and death into the world. Under this reading, ἐφ’ ᾧ is best construed as a causal conjunction meaning “because of which” or simply “because.” This is a classical use attested in Greek literature, especially in later Koine.

The causal use finds support in other Greek texts (cf. Sirach 14:2; Philo, Leg. All. 3.201), and Robertson notes its appropriateness given the grammatical constraints. Thus, the phrase may be rendered: “and so death spread to all men, because all sinned.” This reading preserves syntactic coherence and aligns with the Pauline argument that all humanity participates in sin not merely by union with Adam, but by their own sinfulness.

J.

Yes, having noted the neuter gender of the relative pronoun ᾧ I fully agree

 

[TomL]

It appears there may be some misunderstanding concerning Koine Greek syntax, grammar, and morphology, @TomL, especially regarding the aorist passive-middle.

There’s little value in merely quoting others without possessing firsthand exegetical understanding of the Scriptures ourselves—wouldn’t you agree?
View attachment 1707

While we can quote authorities like Robertson, Vincent, Utley, Adam Clarke, and others, simply repeating their conclusions doesn't necessarily demonstrate our own understanding of the function of these grammatical concepts, right? Otherwise, you wouldn’t be asking me this question.

No—Romans 5:19 does not teach that the many are imputed righteous apart from any response of their own. While the verb κατασταθήσονται ("will be made [righteous]") is forensic and passive, denoting a judicial status granted rather than earned, Paul is emphatically clear throughout Romans that this status is only applied to those who respond in faith.

Shalom.

J.

The question was not asked as to obtain understanding but as a challenge to an immediate imputation. If one cannot biblically affirm an unilateral immediate imputation of the righteousness of Christ, one cannot therefore posit immediate imputation of the sin of Adam

 

[TomL]

Which one do you hold @Jim?

Traditional Augustinian and Reformed View (Inherited Guilt through Imputation)

Seminal or Realist View (Inherited Guilt by Participation)

Pelagian View (No Inherited Guilt, Only Bad Example)

Eastern Orthodox View (Ancestral Sin, Not Guilt)

Moderate Evangelical View (Inclination to Sin, but No Immediate Guilt)

J.

Arminian view - No native demerit (no guilt for Adam's sin) but native depravity

 

[Johann]

Yes, having noted the neuter gender of the relative pronoun ᾧ I fully agree

Robertson-
For that all sinned (Ephesians' hōi pantes hēmarton). Constative (summary) aorist active indicative of hamartanō, gathering up in this one tense the history of the race (committed sin). The transmission from Adam became facts of experience. In the old Greek Ephesians' hōi usually meant “on condition that,” but “because” in N.T. (Robertson, Grammar, p. 963).


sin. Note: "the sin—the death;" where the article seems to point out the sin and the death, which by Adam’s transgression entered the world. Isa_43:27.

Exegete this verse for me as we both know scholars are not seeing eye to eye on this

J.

 

[TomL]

Robertson-
For that all sinned (Ephesians' hōi pantes hēmarton). Constative (summary) aorist active indicative of hamartanō, gathering up in this one tense the history of the race (committed sin). The transmission from Adam became facts of experience. In the old Greek Ephesians' hōi usually meant “on condition that,” but “because” in N.T. (Robertson, Grammar, p. 963).


sin. Note: "the sin—the death;" where the article seems to point out the sin and the death, which by Adam’s transgression entered the world. Isa_43:27.

Exegete this verse for me as we both know scholars are not seeing eye to eye on this

J.

???????


I already indicated I agreed with your posting

Excursus on the Syntax of ἐφ’ ᾧ in Romans 5:12:

The phrase ἐφ’ ᾧ is composed of the preposition ἐπί with the prepositional prefix contracted before the relative pronoun ᾧ, the dative singular of the relative pronoun ὅς. However, crucial to interpretation is the grammatical gender and case of ᾧ. Here, ᾧ is neuter dative singular, not masculine, and thus does not directly refer back to Ἀδάμ (which is masculine) or any other masculine antecedent.

This grammatical feature challenges the interpretation of ἐφ’ ᾧ as “in whom,” which would presuppose a masculine antecedent—typically Ἀδάμ. Since the relative pronoun does not match Ἀδάμ in gender, the interpretation “in whom all sinned” is grammatically strained.

Instead, the neuter ᾧ is more naturally understood to refer back to the preceding clause δι’ ἑνὸς ἀνθρώπου ἡ ἁμαρτία εἰς τὸν κόσμον εἰσῆλθεν, or more abstractly to the entrance of sin and death into the world. Under this reading, ἐφ’ ᾧ is best construed as a causal conjunction meaning “because of which” or simply “because.” This is a classical use attested in Greek literature, especially in later Koine.

 

[Johann]

The question was not asked as to obtain understanding but as a challenge to an immediate imputation. If one cannot biblically affirm an unilateral immediate imputation of the righteousness of Christ, one cannot therefore posit immediate imputation of the sin of Adam

01.08 AM here in South Africa and I'm kind of tired brother.

J.

 

[TomL]

01.08 AM here in South Africa and I'm kind of tired brother.

J.

No problem

Things are pretty tough down there as it is.

 

[Johann]

???????


I already indicated I agreed with your posting

Excursus on the Syntax of ἐφ’ ᾧ in Romans 5:12:

The phrase ἐφ’ ᾧ is composed of the preposition ἐπί with the prepositional prefix contracted before the relative pronoun ᾧ, the dative singular of the relative pronoun ὅς. However, crucial to interpretation is the grammatical gender and case of ᾧ. Here, ᾧ is neuter dative singular, not masculine, and thus does not directly refer back to Ἀδάμ (which is masculine) or any other masculine antecedent.

This grammatical feature challenges the interpretation of ἐφ’ ᾧ as “in whom,” which would presuppose a masculine antecedent—typically Ἀδάμ. Since the relative pronoun does not match Ἀδάμ in gender, the interpretation “in whom all sinned” is grammatically strained.

Instead, the neuter ᾧ is more naturally understood to refer back to the preceding clause δι’ ἑνὸς ἀνθρώπου ἡ ἁμαρτία εἰς τὸν κόσμον εἰσῆλθεν, or more abstractly to the entrance of sin and death into the world. Under this reading, ἐφ’ ᾧ is best construed as a causal conjunction meaning “because of which” or simply “because.” This is a classical use attested in Greek literature, especially in later Koine.

Use your own words @TomL

For that all have sinned.—.Rather, for that, or because, all sinned—i.e., not by their own individual act, but implicitly in Adam’s transgression. They were summed up, and included in him as the head and representative of the race.
Ellicot.

I'm not trying to challenge you or catch you off guard; I'm simply testing to ensure that you fully grasp what you're asserting in your posts.

J.

 

[Selah]

I love the book of Romans @Selah.

And Isaiah 53.

Johann.

Yes. The Word of God is beautiful, and indeed, Isaiah 53 reaches the heart of any saint and brings tears to the eyes. Thank you for mentioning that passage.

 

[Johann]

Yes. The Word of God is beautiful, and indeed, Isaiah 53 reaches the heart of any saint and brings tears to the eyes. Thank you for mentioning that passage.

Only a pleasure.

Johann.

 

[Johann]

Arminian view - No native demerit (no guilt for Adam's sin) but native depravity

- YouTube

Auf YouTube findest du die angesagtesten Videos und Tracks. Außerdem kannst du eigene Inhalte hochladen und mit Freunden oder gleich der ganzen Welt teilen.

youtu.be

Arminians are going to have a hard time explaining this.

Rom 5:12 On account of this, just as by one man sin entered into the world, and by means of sin, death; and so death passed through unto all men, because all ... sinned:

The sin-The death personified--entered and reigned. Many were CONSTITUTED sinners--

J.

 

[TomL]

- YouTube

Auf YouTube findest du die angesagtesten Videos und Tracks. Außerdem kannst du eigene Inhalte hochladen und mit Freunden oder gleich der ganzen Welt teilen.

youtu.be

Arminians are going to have a hard time explaining this.

Rom 5:12 On account of this, just as by one man sin entered into the world, and by means of sin, death; and so death passed through unto all men, because all ... sinned:

The sin-The death personified--entered and reigned. Many were CONSTITUTED sinners--

J.

The idea of common Arminianisms is inherited depravity will cause all to eventually sin

 

[TomL]

Use your own words @TomL

For that all have sinned.—.Rather, for that, or because, all sinned—i.e., not by their own individual act, but implicitly in Adam’s transgression. They were summed up, and included in him as the head and representative of the race.
Ellicot.

I'm not trying to challenge you or catch you off guard; I'm simply testing to ensure that you fully grasp what you're asserting in your posts.

J.

With regard to Romans 5:12, my perspective is that death spread to all humanity because each individual personally sinned. By rejecting the translation "in Adam all sinned," I am liberated to explore an interpretation that emphasizes personal responsibility for sin. This perspective aligns with the notion that each individual's actions lead to their own moral accountability, rather than inheriting guilt through Adam's transgression

 

[Selah]

- YouTube

Auf YouTube findest du die angesagtesten Videos und Tracks. Außerdem kannst du eigene Inhalte hochladen und mit Freunden oder gleich der ganzen Welt teilen.

youtu.be

Arminians are going to have a hard time explaining this.

Rom 5:12 On account of this, just as by one man sin entered into the world, and by means of sin, death; and so death passed through unto all men, because all ... sinned:

The sin-The death personified--entered and reigned. Many were CONSTITUTED sinners--

J.

Very good sermon by MLJ.

2 Corinthians 9:15 (NKJV) Thanks [be] to God for His indescribable gift!

 

[Selah]

This verse is exceedingly important to understand:

Hebrews 2:14-17 (NKJV) 14 Inasmuch then as the children have partaken of flesh and blood, He Himself likewise shared in the same, that through death He might destroy him who had the power of death, that is, the devil, 15 and release those who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage. 16 For indeed He does not give aid to angels, but He does give aid to the seed of Abraham. 17 Therefore, in all things He had to be made like [His] brethren, that He might be a merciful and faithful High Priest in things [pertaining] to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.