All Claims of The Son's Deity

Why can't answer to a simple question?
If we stand for the truth, all questions can be sufficiently answered.
Here, once again, what the "Word of God" I colored blue above means? Is it the whole Bible or not? Just yes or no.
I answered your question many times. You refuse my answer so you say I'm not answering.

The Old Testament is not the Christian Bible.
 
The Old Testament is not the Christian Bible.
Romans 15:4 "For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope."

101G
 
Right... for our learning. Not addressed to us.
ERROR our Learning addresses us, NOW, TODAY. for the O.T Scriptures, is the N.T. Scriptures, hidden. and the N.T. scriptures are the O.T. scriptures revealed. so get to reading if you want to KNOW "GOD", the Lord Jesus, God the ALMIGHTY ONE. .... (smile).

101G.
 
Why can't answer to a simple question?
If we stand for the truth, all questions can be sufficiently answered.
Here, once again, what the "Word of God" I colored blue above means? Is it the whole Bible or not? Just yes or no.
I have a question, do you believe the earliest Christians regarded the books and letters we now call the New Testament as Scripture? It's interesting that no one is recorded as having referred to the books/letters of the apostles as Scripture in the Bible.

I think what the earliest Christians believed would probably shock you. They weren't Trinitarians and starting out they were all Jewish. They only regarded the Old Testament as Scripture.

Things have changed over time. We now consider the New Testament as holy writ Scripture, so we can say, on faith, that the word of God is the entire Bible.

Also, the word of God is anything God says and not all of it is written down. It isn't like God talked in the past and then zipped it up for the last 2,000 years. Do you believe God is still giving revelation and if not then why?
 
I have a question, do you believe the earliest Christians regarded the books and letters we now call the New Testament as Scripture? It's interesting that no one is recorded as having referred to the books/letters of the apostles as Scripture in the Bible.

I think what the earliest Christians believed would probably shock you. They weren't Trinitarians and starting out they were all Jewish. They only regarded the Old Testament as Scripture.

Things have changed over time. We now consider the New Testament as holy writ Scripture, so we can say, on faith, that the word of God is the entire Bible.

Also, the word of God is anything God says and not all of it is written down. It isn't like God talked in the past and then zipped it up for the last 2,000 years. Do you believe God is still giving revelation and if not then why?
You just know enough to misread scripture.
2 Peter 3:16 (ESV)
16as he does in all his letters when he speaks in them of these matters. There are some things in them that are hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other Scriptures.

That warning also speaks against following the unitarian beliefs.

We see Jews held to the Two Power of Heaven by the time of Christ. We see Gal 3:19-20 understood with Jesus as part of the Godhead. We see Thomas calling Jesus God. We see Matt 28:18-19 with the three functioning with one name. So these were Jews who recognized the divinity of Christ quite explicitly, along with John 1. So you are really neglecting scripture as 2 Peter 3:16 reveals.
 
You just know enough to misread scripture.
2 Peter 3:16 (ESV)
16as he does in all his letters when he speaks in them of these matters. There are some things in them that are hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other Scriptures.
That doesn't call Paul's writings Scripture, it calls Paul's writings letters, which is what they are. No NT writer refers to the writings of the New Testament explicitly as Scripture.
That warning also speaks against following the unitarian beliefs.
There is no warning against believing in God in the Bible. What are you on about?
We see Jews held to the Two Power of Heaven by the time of Christ. We see Gal 3:19-20 understood with Jesus as part of the Godhead.
1 Timothy 2:5 proves that God and Jesus aren't the same party. Jesus is a mediator between God and mankind.
We see Thomas calling Jesus God.
That's a new one. Verse?
We see Matt 28:18-19 with the three functioning with one name.
Three of what?
So these were Jews who recognized the divinity of Christ quite explicitly, along with John 1. So you are really neglecting scripture as 2 Peter 3:16 reveals.
Which verse says what your conclusions are?
 
That doesn't call Paul's writings Scripture, it calls Paul's writings letters, which is what they are. No NT writer refers to the writings of the New Testament explicitly as Scripture.
was these epistles approved by God? Luke 10:16 "He that heareth you heareth me; and he that despiseth you despiseth me; and he that despiseth me despiseth him that sent me."

101G.
 
That doesn't call Paul's writings Scripture, it calls Paul's writings letters, which is what they are. No NT writer refers to the writings of the New Testament explicitly as Scripture.
Like I said. You cannot comprehend even the verse by Peter speaking of Paul's and other scriptures. The letters of Paul appear to have been collected together and distributed as a set rather quickly. The gospels and these letters were apparently available before the destruction of Jerusalem
There is no warning against believing in God in the Bible. What are you on about?
Well. it is admitted that the devil believes in God in the Bible and still was acting against Christ. The concern early on was those who deny Christ. That includes his divinity, not just denying the Word incarnating in the flesh.

1 Timothy 2:5 proves that God and Jesus aren't the same party. Jesus is a mediator between God and mankind.
We have proved your bad exegesis over and over again but you seem to like to demonstrate the bad exegesis here again.

That's a new one. Verse?
I would suspect it is removed from the unitarian bible
Three of what?
We say three persons. If you have another term for the three that are part of that name, you have never shared that.
Which verse says what your conclusions are?
Everything is explained for the people who have ears to hear.
 
Terms found nowhere in Scripture...
  • Deity
  • Co-equal
  • Co-eternal
  • Incarnated
  • Eternal son
  • Infinite son
  • God the son
  • One substance
  • Persons of God
  • God became man
  • Eternally begotten
  • Pre-existent Christ
  • God the Holy Spirit
  • Pre-incarnate Christ
  • Three persons, three in one
  • Trinity, Triune God, tri-unity
  • Two nature's, Hypostatic union
Or any combination of 1st person, 2nd person, 3rd person.
 
Terms found nowhere in Scripture...
  • Deity
  • Co-equal
  • Co-eternal
  • Incarnated
  • Eternal son
  • Infinite son
  • God the son
  • One substance
  • Persons of God
  • God became man
  • Eternally begotten
  • Pre-existent Christ
  • God the Holy Spirit
  • Pre-incarnate Christ
  • Three persons, three in one
  • Trinity, Triune God, tri-unity
  • Two nature's, Hypostatic union
Or any combination of 1st person, 2nd person, 3rd person.
Oh wow. We can help you understand terms that help clarify details about God and identify errors when people deviate from those aspects known about God. We can help you get beyond the unitarian pocket dictionary if you want to come to a true understanding of God. There is no reason you should be left in the dark anymore.
 
Philippians 2:6 is not a teaching on the trinity or that we should believe or confess that Jesus is God. After saying that Christ was in the form of God, Philippians 2:6 goes on to say that Christ “considered being equal with God not something to be grasped at.” If Jesus were God, then it would make no sense at all to say that he did not “grasp” at equality with God because no one grasps at equality with himself. Some Trinitarians say, “Well, he was not grasping for equality with the Father.” That is not what the verse says. It says Christ did not grasp at equality with God, which makes the verse nonsense if he were God.

The Greek word morphē does not refer to the essential nature of Christ in that context. If the point of the verse is to say that Jesus is God, then why not just say that? If Jesus is God, say that, don’t say he has the “essential nature of God.” Of course God has the “essential nature” of God, so why would anyone make that point? This verse does not say “Jesus being God” but rather “being in the form of God.” Paul is reminding the Philippians that Jesus represented the Father in every possible way.

From the Septuagint and their other writings, the Jews were familiar with morphē referring to the outward appearance, including the form of men and idols. To the Greeks, it also referred to the outward appearance, including the changing outward appearance of their gods and the form of statues. The only other New Testament use of morphē outside Philippians is in Mark, and there it refers to the outward appearance. Also, the words related to morphē clearly refer to an outward manifestation or appearance. The word morphē refers to an outward appearance or manifestation. Jesus Christ was in the outward appearance of God, so much so that he said, “He who has seen me has seen the Father.” Christ always did the Father’s will, and perfectly represented his Father in every way.
Do that mean that "as Jesus takes the form of a servant" He is not man?

Bible lexicon defined "form", as He, Jesus "always had the very nature of God," and the application of "form/morphe" on both verses 6 and 7 must therefore have the same sense.
Meaning if you honestly believe, " as Jesus takes the form of a servant, He is a man.
And "as Jesus in the form of God" applying the same sense, He is God.
See Vine's and Louw and Nida Bible lexicons below;

NT:3444
"The true meaning of morphe in the expression 'form of God' is confirmed by its recurrence in the corresponding phrase, 'form of a servant.' It is universally admitted that the two phrases are directly antithetical, and
that 'form' must therefore have the same sense in both."
(from Vine's Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words, Copyright © 1985, Thomas Nelson Publishers.)


NT:3444 μορφή morphē
the nature or character of something, with emphasis upon both the internal and external form - 'nature, character.'

he always had the very nature of God' Phil 2:6; he took on the nature of a servant' Phil 2:7. In view of the lack of a closely corresponding lexical item such as 'nature,' it may be necessary to restructure the form of Phil 2:7 as 'he became truly a servant.'
(from Greek-English Lexicon Based on Semantic Domain. Copyright © 1988 United Bible Societies, New York. Used by permission.)

Mar 10:45 “For even the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life as a ransom for many.”
 
I have a question, do you believe the earliest Christians regarded the books and letters we now call the New Testament as Scripture? It's interesting that no one is recorded as having referred to the books/letters of the apostles as Scripture in the Bible.

I think what the earliest Christians believed would probably shock you. They weren't Trinitarians and starting out they were all Jewish. They only regarded the Old Testament as Scripture.

Things have changed over time. We now consider the New Testament as holy writ Scripture, so we can say, on faith, that the word of God is the entire Bible.

Also, the word of God is anything God says and not all of it is written down. It isn't like God talked in the past and then zipped it up for the last 2,000 years. Do you believe God is still giving revelation and if not then why?
The early or first Christians were those in Antioch, can you cite a verse that the New Testament was called as Scriptures?

Act 11:26 and when he had found him, he brought him to Antioch. And for an entire year they met with the church and taught considerable numbers of people; and the disciples were first called Christians in Antioch.
 
Yes, the Old Testament always mentioned as Scriptures in the NT.
But my Bible consists of the Old and the New Testament.
Do your Bible only contain New Testament?
The present administration of God is in the time period of the New Testament known as Grace. It deals with the new covenant, and it belongs to the time that is called the administration of the mystery. It's a period in time that was not made known to any one prior to this administration because God kept it a secret since the world began. From this our Grace administration, we learn God’s secret purpose that He had placed in Himself, according to the administration of Grace, which was first revealed to the apostle Paul.

From the eighth chapter of the book of Romans, it's written to those who live in this present Grace administration, “There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus” and “that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord.”

From the sixth chapter of the book of Deuteronomy, it was written to those who lived under the Law administration, “it shall be our righteousness, if we observe to do all these commandments before the Lord our God, as he hath commanded us.” However, from the third chapter of the book of Romans, it's written to those who live in this present Grace administration, “by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight.” What was written to those who lived under the Law administration is the complete opposite of what is written to us who live under the Grace administration.

We will always be in darkness and confusion regarding the truth of God’s Word if we do not understand the different administrations in the Bible. All hope for our redemption is in Jesus Christ, who was born into this world, died, and in the resurrection, he became the head of a new creation. The living resurrected Christ Jesus has become the one great subject that occupies the Word of God that the church belongs to. It's this Christ Jesus that is the key to the divine revelation in the Word of God for this our Grace administration. The contents of the New Testament must be understood in reference to Christ Jesus our Lord because the doctrine and nature of God for this our Grace administration are centered in His Christ.
 
The present administration of God is in the time period of the New Testament known as Grace. It deals with the new covenant, and it belongs to the time that is called the administration of the mystery. It's a period in time that was not made known to any one prior to this administration because God kept it a secret since the world began. From this our Grace administration, we learn God’s secret purpose that He had placed in Himself, according to the administration of Grace, which was first revealed to the apostle Paul.

From the eighth chapter of the book of Romans, it's written to those who live in this present Grace administration, “There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus” and “that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord.”

From the sixth chapter of the book of Deuteronomy, it was written to those who lived under the Law administration, “it shall be our righteousness, if we observe to do all these commandments before the Lord our God, as he hath commanded us.” However, from the third chapter of the book of Romans, it's written to those who live in this present Grace administration, “by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight.” What was written to those who lived under the Law administration is the complete opposite of what is written to us who live under the Grace administration.

We will always be in darkness and confusion regarding the truth of God’s Word if we do not understand the different administrations in the Bible. All hope for our redemption is in Jesus Christ, who was born into this world, died, and in the resurrection, he became the head of a new creation. The living resurrected Christ Jesus has become the one great subject that occupies the Word of God that the church belongs to. It's this Christ Jesus that is the key to the divine revelation in the Word of God for this our Grace administration. The contents of the New Testament must be understood in reference to Christ Jesus our Lord because the doctrine and nature of God for this our Grace administration are centered in His Christ.
It is the Word of God who died on the cross to get us this grace. There is no end of the grace he obtained. So grace continues unbounded. It is not a surprise that another odd doctrine abides in the unitarian belief system.
 
It is the Word of God who died on the cross to get us this grace. There is no end of the grace he obtained. So grace continues unbounded. It is not a surprise that another odd doctrine abides in the unitarian belief system.
Words are not living creatures. This should have been taught in first grade.
 
Words are not living creatures. This should have been taught in first grade.
You should have learned about metaphor and analogy by 5th grade. Philo was one who developed some concepts of wisdom shared in the concept of logos as introducing some Grecko-Roman philosophy when sharing about Judaism. John answers and shows that the logos has become a man, Jesus, after pre-existing in creation. I should not have to point out as obvious what John already has made obvious.
You forgot that we addressed this before. But you present the same invalid argument anyhow. I do try to remind others that unitarians only seem to achieve a hyperliteralist reading of scripture that rejects the intended metaphors and analogies. In that way, they can consider strategies to expose the problems of unitarian eisegesis.
 
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You should have learned about metaphor and analogy by 5th grade. Philo was one who developed some concepts of wisdom shared in the concept of logos as introducing some Grecko-Roman philosophy when sharing about Judaism. John answers and shows that the logos has become a man, Jesus, after pre-existing in creation. I should not have to point out as obvious what John already has made obvious.
You forgot that we addressed this before. But you present the same invalid argument anyhow. I do try to remind others that unitarians only seem to achieve a hyperliteralist reading of scripture that rejects the intended metaphors and analogies. In that way, they can consider strategies to expose the problems of unitarian eisegesis.
You addressed it before. I post for new people. Not you.
 
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