All Claims of The Son's Deity

Now you again mocking the truth. As I have said before, this is the spirit of antiChrist.
I don't get the disrespectful from @mikesw or the antiChrist from you. It must be that you two can't think out of the box. You assume that God's dog is like your dog. The point is it does not say who "us" is. So my guess is still as good as your guess. And here's some data on the plural...

The word "elohim" in Genesis 1:1 does not prove that Jesus is God or that we should believe or confess that Jesus is God. The word "elohim" is indeed grammatically plural, but in Hebrew it often functions as a singular title, especially when referring to the one true God. This is called a plural of majesty, and not a numerical plural of persons. The verb created "bara" is singular, showing that only one acted. So while "elohim" can function like "police" sometimes singular and sometimes plural the verb form makes it clear: a single God created. The one true God acted alone through His own spiritual body often referred to as His "logos" and not through multiple divine persons. There is no trinity here and no conversation between separate minds. Just one God expressing Himself. Here's how a friend of mine wrote it... The word "elohim" is always found in the plural form and is often called a uniplural noun. A uniplural noun is a word that appears in the plural form, but is used for singular and plural subjects alike. Words like “deer” and “fish” are examples of uniplural nouns in English. The word "elohim" as with many Hebrew words carries more than one definition. When it's being used in a plural sense, it refers to “gods” or “men with authority.” When it's used in its singular sense, it can refer to “God” or “a god” or “a man with authority, such as a judge.”
 
Paul wrote 1 Timothy 2:5 decades after God took Jesus' human body to heaven. Jesus is still a human right now at the right hand of God. That's how everyone in the Bible remembered Jesus, as a glorified human. Read Acts, for example, where they say Jesus is a man who God raised from the dead, anointed, empowered, and gave authority.

And John 1:18 is a different subject and contains contradictions in the version you used. For one, if no one has seen God, then no one has seen Jesus, contrary to the Bible saying people saw Jesus before and after his death and "every eye" will see him when God brings him back.
You may have that interpretation, but the Father Himself said to the Son, "Your throne O God is forever and ever. Won't you believe the Father's words?(Heb 1:8) In reference to Psa 45:6 where classic Jews interpret it as it refer to the Jewish Messiah.

God is a title, not the personal of the Father. Jesus and the Father are one in the nature of being God.(Rom 1:20, Col 2:9)
Jesus had two nature, being human and being God. (Matt 26:63-64)
 
You may have that interpretation, but the Father Himself said to the Son, "Your throne O God is forever and ever. Won't you believe the Father's words?(Heb 1:8) In reference to Psa 45:6 where classic Jews interpret it as it refer to the Jewish Messiah.
I believe it, but the thing is that those very same words are said to a human with a wife/queen in Psalm 45:6, who was most likely king Solomon. We understand that king Solomon is not God, right? So when Psalm 45:6 was transferred to Jesus in Hebrews 1:8, we understand that Jesus isn't being called God. The original word is "elohim" which can mean god, but it can also refer to judges or magistrates, which is what kings are. Context matters.

God is a title, not the personal of the Father. Jesus and the Father are one in the nature of being God.(Rom 1:20, Col 2:9)
Jesus had two nature, being human and being God. (Matt 26:63-64)
I am not sure what your argument is this time. Jesus being human, having a divine nature, and being one with God is identical to other true Christians.

2 Peter 1
4Through these He has given us His precious and magnificent promises, so that through them you may become partakers of the divine nature, now that you have escaped the corruption in the world caused by evil desires.

John 17
21that all of them may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I am in You. May they also be in Us, so that the world may believe that You sent Me.
22I have given them the glory You gave Me, so that they may be one as We are one23I in them and You in Me—that they may be perfectly united, so that the world may know that You sent Me and have loved them just as You have loved Me.

1 Corinthians 6
17But he who unites himself with the Lord is one with Him in spirit.
 
A Greek word for begotten God isn't in the manuscripts. Somebody penciled it into
the translation probably because they thought the verse makes better sense that
way. Some versions insert the word Son in that location, but that's an arbitrary
edit too. Caveat Lector.
_
Below is (NAS95) a Bible translation that aims to maintain the highest degree of accuracy to the original languages renders the same with The New Testament in Original Greek by Westcott and Hort, it is not a translation.

(NAS95+)Joh 1:18 R1NoG3762 oneG3762 has seenG3708 GodG2316 at anyG4455 timeG4455; R2the onlyG3439 begottenG3439 GodG2316 who is R3in the bosomG2859 of the FatherG3962, R4He has explainedG1834 Him.

(NT Wescott and Hort+)Joh 1:18 θεονG2316 N-ASM ουδειςG3762 A-NSM-N εωρακενG3708 V-RAI-3S-ATT πωποτεG4455 ADV
μονογενηςG3439 A-NSM θεοςG2316 N-NSM οG3588 T-NSM ωνG1510 V-PAP-NSM ειςG1519 PREP τονG3588 T-ASM κολπονG2859 N-ASM τουG3588 T-GSM πατροςG3962 N-GSM εκεινοςG1565 D-NSM εξηγησατοG1834 V-ADI-3S
 
I believe it, but the thing is that those very same words are said to a human with a wife/queen in Psalm 45:6, who was most likely king Solomon. We understand that king Solomon is not God, right? So when Psalm 45:6 was transferred to Jesus in Hebrews 1:8, we understand that Jesus isn't being called God. The original word is "elohim" which can mean god, but it can also refer to judges or magistrates, which is what kings are. Context matters.
Yes, context matters, but I believe you did not notice that Psa 45:6 speaks of a throne that is forever and ever. In your interpretation can you cite a verse where that forever and ever throne of king Solomon in the New Testament?
I am not sure what your argument is this time. Jesus being human, having a divine nature, and being one with God is identical to other true Christians.

2 Peter 1
4Through these He has given us His precious and magnificent promises, so that through them you may become partakers of the divine nature, now that you have escaped the corruption in the world caused by evil desires.

John 17
21that all of them may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I am in You. May they also be in Us, so that the world may believe that You sent Me.
22I have given them the glory You gave Me, so that they may be one as We are one23I in them and You in Me—that they may be perfectly united, so that the world may know that You sent Me and have loved them just as You have loved Me.

1 Corinthians 6
17But he who unites himself with the Lord is one with Him in spirit.
Believers were promised to be renewed from corruptible to incorruptible in the image of God, and having communion with them, so as to dwell in God and God in you.
Joh 1:12 But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name,
Joh 1:13 who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of a man, but of God.
 
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