All Claims of The Son's Deity

[mikesw]

I have never seen any of your kind man up and explain why Jesus doesn't share all of the divine attributes with God or all of the divine names and titles.

Which ones?

The angel of the LORD and the LORD are speaking to each other in Zech. 1 because the angel of the LORD is not the LORD.

They said Jesus was a sinner, demon possessed, a blasphemer, a sinner in general, etc. I hope you don't believe everything they say. Jesus said their father is the devil and that they do the works of their father, the father of lies. Why are you basing your beliefs on those of the children of the devil?

Not according to Scripture. No one ever did that in Jesus' church.

Not what Jesus taught to do in John 4:23,24.

They were also doing several other heresies. Gnosticism was one of the earliest heresies, but docetism, sabellianism, proto-trinitarianism, and numerous other heresies all showed up around the same time. However, what you consider orthordox trinitarianism was not created until the 4th century; the early church fathers were heretics by today's standards of trinitarianism.

I also might add, most of the heresies that started early on are still around in the present day. So why did the heresy of trinitarianism become so prevalent? They had political support because trinitarianism was more palatable to polytheistic pagans around the Roman empire and they wanted it to replace their false gods.

I have a great tip for you to improve your debate skills. Try doing an internet search to address your memory problems. Forgetfulness is quite the drawback for you. I may have to do an internet search on how to avoid skimming too quickly on unitarian posts in case they same something relevant.

 

[Peterlag]

People often say I'm wrong when I post the following because they say I looked it up in an Interlinear or Concordance and it shows the word is a "him" and not an "it." Those reference books show how the Bible translates words and not what the Greek actually means. The pronoun is an "it" when it refers to an inanimate noun like "word" because Greek has grammatical "gender" and the "Word" in John 1 is a thing so the Greek says it's an "it."

John 1:3 “Everything came to be through it.” The logos is an “it” not a “him.”

Translators have deliberately chosen to use “him” because they wanted to emphasize that the Word was the male person we know as Jesus. This was a theological choice, not a linguistic one.

"Do not forsake wisdom, and she will protect you; love her, and she will watch over you” (Proverbs 4:6).

Is the Wisdom in Proverbs 4:6 a distinct divine person?

The "Word" is not literally a person for the same reason that "Wisdom" is not literally a person. Both are to be taken metaphorically.

Jesus is the personification of the Word because He speaks the words of God. To listen to Jesus equals listening to the Word of God.

 

[Runningman]

I have a great tip for you to improve your debate skills. Try doing an internet search to address your memory problems. Forgetfulness is quite the drawback for you. I may have to do an internet search on how to avoid skimming too quickly on unitarian posts in case they same something relevant.

That was a no talent, low effort, response, as are most of your replies. Just a bunch of jabs, but nothing important or relevant. All claims and talking about your doctrines, no Scripture to back it up.

 

[mikesw]

That was a no talent, low effort, response, as are most of your replies. Just a bunch of jabs, but nothing important or relevant. All claims and talking about your doctrines, no Scripture to back it up.

you cannot even recognize your failure to understand scriptures that go against your view. This is feedback, not jabs.