All Claims of The Son's Deity

Son of man means human. Why would not a human be called a son of man?
Son of Man has a connection to the encounter in the clouds in Dan 7:13-14. In that it is revealed that he is like a Son of Man. The broad picture then implies his divine nature but has become like a Son of Man. As such, Son of Man goes beyond images of just being human, i.e. of being mere man. That concept however goes beyond the ability of the unitarian to recognize Christ Jesus.
 
Son of man means human. Why would not a human be called a son of man?
Yes, Jesus was called the "Son of man" because His mother is human, Mary. That is the honest and logical answer I ever had with you for now.
And why this honest and logical answer cannot be applied to Jesus as the "Son of God" where His Father is God?
That question centered to Jesus not to "sons of God" that refers to the believers.
 
Yes, sons of God refers to those who have faith in Him.
But I would like to know your understanding why Jesus was called as the "Son of man?"
"Son of man" when used for other people throughout the Bible refers to them being human. However, there is a definitive and unique Son of Man who existed in prophecy, but never anyone called the Son of God in prophecy. Jesus was just pointing out that he is that particular Son of Man in the prophecies so that people would know exactly who he was claiming to be, which was the promised human messiah.
 
"Son of man" when used for other people throughout the Bible refers to them being human. However, there is a definitive and unique Son of Man who existed in prophecy, but never anyone called the Son of God in prophecy. Jesus was just pointing out that he is that particular Son of Man in the prophecies so that people would know exactly who he was claiming to be, which was the promised human messiah.
Yes, Jesus was prophesied to be born by a human woman and that's why He was called as the "Son of man".
And why this honesty cannot be applied to Jesus as the "Son of God" where His Father is God?( Psa 45:6-7, Heb 1:8-9)
 
Yes, Jesus was prophesied to be born by a human woman and that's why He was called as the "Son of man".
And why this honesty cannot be applied to Jesus as the "Son of God" where His Father is God?( Psa 45:6-7, Heb 1:8-9)
So you agree there are many sons of men and many sons of God? So Jesus is really the firstborn among many brothers after all? Not human brothers, no, but spiritual brothers with the same Father.

Romans 8
28And we know that God works all things together for the good of those who love Him, who are called according to His purpose. 29For those God foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers.
 
So you agree there are many sons of men and many sons of God? So Jesus is really the firstborn among many brothers after all? Not human brothers, no, but spiritual brothers with the same Father.

Romans 8
28And we know that God works all things together for the good of those who love Him, who are called according to His purpose. 29For those God foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers.
You just didn't answer the question. My question centered to Jesus, not to those who loved God, conformed to the image of Christ, I colored red above where Bible lexicon defined "brethren" in Greek "ἀδελφός adelphos" as member of the Christian community.

Now, why the honest and logical answer to Jesus as the "Son of man" cannot be applied to Jesus as the "Son of God" where His Father is God? (Psa 45:6, Heb 1:8)

(NAS95+)Rom 8:29 For thoseG3739 whomG3739 He R1foreknewG4267, He alsoG2532 R2predestinedG4309 to become R3conformedG4832b to the imageG1504 of His SonG5207, soG1519 that He would be the R4firstbornG4416a amongG1722 manyG4183 brethrenG80;

G80 Mounce
ἀδελφός adelphos
343x: a brother, near kinsman or relative; one of the same nation or nature; one of equal rank and dignity; an associate,
a member of the Christian community.
 
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