With all due respect, @Keiw 1, you have not followed the scriptural evidence I presented. Col 1:16 says in him, through, him and for him. You have to take all three things together.
I understand about He, my friend, the question is that you have 3 personalities involved (or given your theology, at least two personalities, the Father and the Word)
If it is a singular person to which “He” is referring, then which person is it?
Both the Father and the Son are credited with creation (Gen 1, John 1, Col 1, Heb 1) and in the NT, it is the Son that is continually pictured in the role of creator.
So, is the OT contradicting the NT? The most direct (and scriptural) explanation is the answer is No, The God of creation in the OT is The Word, Jesus Christ in the NT.
The only logical and scripturally accurate explanation is that Jesus is God in terms of his natural state of existence. I have explained scripturally why I disagree with your opinion. You have yet to answer me with scriptural evidence that what I have said about the scripture is not correct and why.
I have not referred to any translation as true, but rather the Greek itself. You have not given anything beyond the the WTS’s standard and unsupported quotations. (Which I’ve learned to to expect from ‘well trained’ members of Kingdom Hall.) You are trained to repeat what they tell you, rather than trained to exegete scripture with scripture. Members of Kingdom Hall are told to not study the Bible on your own, or at least not without Watchtower/Kingdom supervision and guidance. That is why exegesis is not taught. The top leaders of the Watchtower have allegedly done the “exegesis” and told the various Kingdom Halls under their supervision what to say, rather than teach their people how to do the work for themselves.
Doug