civic
Well-known member
Yes its the name of YHWH in the LXX.
. Its also the N.T. Greek word for YHWH. They are without an argument.
What do JW's Believe ?
- Thread starter civic
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. Its also the N.T. Greek word for YHWH. They are without an argument.
In your error translation it calls Jesus God, same at John 1:1. It does not call the word capitol G God at John 1:1 in the Greek lexicons. Your translations are filled with errors to mislead, to fit false council teachings=100% fact of reality.
Yes an invention of Catholicism's councils misleading all into breaking Gods #1 commandment daily, making those= ones who work iniquity and will hear these words( Matt 7:21-23) as judgement.
Catholicism translated Kurios into the NT. It does not belong, just as GOD or LORD does not belong in Gods OT.
TibiasDad
Well-known member
It is not a translation issue as in John 1:1, and you are again deflecting from the actual question. The Hebrew writer tells us that God the Father is speaking to the Son, and the Hebrew writer puts the words of Psalm 45:6-8 into the mouth of God the Father. In other words, according to Hebrews, God call the Son God.
In 45:6, ὁ Θεὸς is the nominative noun, and given that David wrote this referencing Yahweh, the LXX could only mean God, capital G! The God is the only possible translation; the Article demands it!
Doug
God is your throne forever=Ps 45:6
There was no such thing as Catholicism for the first 1000 years of Christianity! The Apostles referred to God as κύριος (Lord) throughout the Koine Greek NT. Your dirt poor knowledge of Christian history is glaringly obvious.
Maybe you missed the fact that in the 300,s Jerome told the Catholic leader Gods name belongs in the NT. So yes Catholicism was there back then=the religion that came out of Rome, it never had Jesus' approval. Jerome translated to the Latin Vulgate in the 300,s=Catholicisms bible. Kept in Latin which few could read until the 1300,s.
Who cares about Jerome? The Apostles refered to God as κύριος (Lord) throughout the entire Greek NT. If you have a problem with that, you can file an official complaint at your nearest Church.
Catholicism translating put Kurios in where Gods name belongs. The apostles did no such thing. The apostles were Christlike and Jesus( John 17:6,26) not only taught his Fathers name but promised to keep on making his Fathers name known, thus so did the apostles and all true followers. To be Christian means to be Christlike as best as possible. And the Lords prayer has been said a trillion gazillion times. Jesus showed all in that prayer=his Fathers name is the #1 issue for all involved.
Are you seriously denying that the Apostles refered to God as κύριος (Lord) throughout the entire Greek NT? Really?!?! Which planet are you living on?
I live by facts. The tetragramoton( YHVH or YHWH) was in the OT by Gods will nearly 6800 spots--wicked men by satans will removed Gods name and put-GOD or LORD all capitols, they had no right. Thus in the NT where the OT is quoted and the name belongs it belongs in the NT as well. Jerome who had originals told the Catholic leader Gods name belongs in the NT every spot the OT is quoted prior to his Latin Vulgate. No originals remained when the protestants translated the latin vulgate into the Greek lexicons.
And since Jesus clearly shows his Fathers name is the #1 issue, all are proving whose will they support on the matter of Gods name in his bible where he willed it. Satan beat most living now=99% centuries ago. They have no clue.
I take strong exception to you calling the Apostles "wicked men by satan". This is totally uncalled for.
Every single extant manuscript of the Koine Greek NT consistently shows the it was the Apostles you used the Greek word κυριος (kyrios, ‘lord’) when referring to the name of God. They followed the Septuagint example of doing so.
Who cares what Jerome did or didn't do? I follow only the Apostles who you slander without cause.
Damien
Member
Rather than discussing many different teachings of the Jw's, I would like to suggest that we consider what is the most important issue, namely, the person of Christ.
Jw's and I both believe that Jesus Christ was a perfect man and that He is a person distinct from God the Father. However, Jw's teach that before His earthly life, Christ was a spirit creature, Michael the archangel, who was created by God and became the Messiah at His baptism.
According to the well-known Jw's publication Let God Be True (p. 33), Jesus is “a mighty one, although not almighty as Jehovah God is.” According to John 1:1 in your Bible, The New World Translation, Christ is “a god” but not “the God.” In other words, Jw's teach that Jesus “was and is and always will be beneath Jehovah” and that “Christ and God are not coequal” (The Watchtower, 15 April 1957).
Does the Bible substantiate these statements, or does it teach that Christ is God? This is an extremely important question.
I would like to raise the following points.
First of all there are several Bible verses that specifically affirm the deity of Christ. In Matthew 1:23, Christ is called “Immanuel,” which means “God with us.” When Thomas touched the wounds of the risen Lord, he exclaimed, “My Lord and my God!” John 20:28
There is no basis whatsoever for saying, as some Jehovah’s Witnesses say, that Thomas was referring to Christ when he said “My Lord” but was referring to God the Father when he said “my God.” Instead Thomas called Christ both his Lord and his God, and Since Christ did not correct him it had to have been a true statement.
Colossians 2:9 clearly confirms the deity of Christ, when it states that in Him “all the fullness of the divine quality dwells bodily”
Jw's and I both believe that Jesus Christ was a perfect man and that He is a person distinct from God the Father. However, Jw's teach that before His earthly life, Christ was a spirit creature, Michael the archangel, who was created by God and became the Messiah at His baptism.
According to the well-known Jw's publication Let God Be True (p. 33), Jesus is “a mighty one, although not almighty as Jehovah God is.” According to John 1:1 in your Bible, The New World Translation, Christ is “a god” but not “the God.” In other words, Jw's teach that Jesus “was and is and always will be beneath Jehovah” and that “Christ and God are not coequal” (The Watchtower, 15 April 1957).
Does the Bible substantiate these statements, or does it teach that Christ is God? This is an extremely important question.
I would like to raise the following points.
First of all there are several Bible verses that specifically affirm the deity of Christ. In Matthew 1:23, Christ is called “Immanuel,” which means “God with us.” When Thomas touched the wounds of the risen Lord, he exclaimed, “My Lord and my God!” John 20:28
There is no basis whatsoever for saying, as some Jehovah’s Witnesses say, that Thomas was referring to Christ when he said “My Lord” but was referring to God the Father when he said “my God.” Instead Thomas called Christ both his Lord and his God, and Since Christ did not correct him it had to have been a true statement.
Colossians 2:9 clearly confirms the deity of Christ, when it states that in Him “all the fullness of the divine quality dwells bodily”
Olde Tymer
Well-known member
.
Personally, I wouldn't use Col 2:9 to prove Jesus is divine because an experienced
JW can easily refute your reasoning with Eph 3:19.
Your take on Matt 1:23 is another line of reasoning easy to refute; so were I you, I'd
leave off quoting that one in defense of Jesus' deity and look for something stronger.
_
Personally, I wouldn't use Col 2:9 to prove Jesus is divine because an experienced
JW can easily refute your reasoning with Eph 3:19.
Your take on Matt 1:23 is another line of reasoning easy to refute; so were I you, I'd
leave off quoting that one in defense of Jesus' deity and look for something stronger.
_
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Catholicism removed Gods name, not the apostles. You best relook. You twist reality in your darkness.
On planet Earth, every single extant manuscript of the Koine Greek NT consistently shows that the Apostles used the Greek word κυριος (kyrios, ‘lord’) when referring to the name of God.
Stop brewing up false myths and fables about the Apostles and stop calling them "wicked men by satan".
Every Greek lexicon in existence was translated from the Latin Vulgate=Catholicism translating. No originals remained when the protestants translated, only the Latin Vulgate until the 1300,s. Catholicism kept in Latin because very few could read latin. Proving 100% they did not have Jesus. Jesus wants all to read Gods word daily. Catholicism hid it because even their own translating exposes them as false religion. The protestants saw that and tried to fix it, but using Catholicism altered and error filled translating made it impossible for the protestants.
Every Greek Lexicon worth its salt is based on the extant 4th century Koine Greek manuscripts and recognizes the fact that the Apostles used the Greek word κυριος (kyrios, ‘lord’) when referring to the name of God. They don't base themselves on Latin or even North Korean verses of the NT. Your insistence on making it a Jerome Latin issue exposes for all to see just how brittle and impoverished your case is. It's time you stopped fighting against the Apostles and came over to reality.
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The divine name kjv came out 2015. Gods name put back where it belongs-Nearly 6800 spots=OT and over 200 spots NT. Because Gods name belongs in all those spots. You can hem and haw over words of men But its 100% fact. God put his name in his bible because he wants it there. Wicked men by satans will removed his name to mislead. Only the false religions giving support to satans will over Gods will on that matter use the altered versions. Whose will do you support? Jesus showed all in the Lords prayer= His Fathers name is the #1 issue for all involved.
