Those who deny the Lord Jesus is God (=YHWH) are not saved (2 Corinthians 11:4)
- Thread starter Fred
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civic
Well-known member
John 1:1-5 is obviously about Jesus. How do we know? Because 1:10-13 express the same idea and can only be about Jesus because we believe in HIS name to be called sons of God. Also, both of those sections of the prologue are followed by texts about the witness of the Baptizer. Who did John witness about? Well, I think we both the answer to that question. John was a witness to "the light" that was "with God in the beginning", "was God (deity)" and that nothing came into being without. If John bore witness of Jesus, then Jesus is the logos of John 1:1-5.
John 1:18 is so clearly about Jesus. Who else is the only begotten God?
John 17:5 demonstrates that John 1:1b is about Jesus. The next clause calls Him theos.
How does 20:28 not call Him God? There is no president for Thomas' words here, no qualification. Thomas calls Jesus, "my God".
Its a slam dunk that John 1:1-3 is describing a Person and that Person is identified as God and that Person is the Son- Jesus Christ the Word made flesh. John 1:14.
hope this helps !!!
John 1:18 is so clearly about Jesus. Who else is the only begotten God?
John 17:5 demonstrates that John 1:1b is about Jesus. The next clause calls Him theos.
How does 20:28 not call Him God? There is no president for Thomas' words here, no qualification. Thomas calls Jesus, "my God".
Its a slam dunk that John 1:1-3 is describing a Person and that Person is identified as God and that Person is the Son- Jesus Christ the Word made flesh. John 1:14.
hope this helps !!!
Matthias
Well-known member
It’s only when we turn the word into a person that a problem occurs. Tyndale, and the other trinitarians who translated the prologue in like manner, saw that John had the Genesis creation in mind.
There is an obvious parallel in the Dead Sea Scrolls.
”By his knowledge everything has been brought into being. And everything that is, He established by His purpose and apart from Him nothing is done.
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Matthias
Well-known member
Like @synergy, you haven’t accounted for Tyndale and other trinitarians who translate the prologue with the understanding that John is speaking about God’s davar, not another person who was with God.
Please tell me that you don’t believe, as he does, that Tyndale was a grammar illiterate.
civic
Well-known member
Appeal to authority fallacy. I can read what the Bible clearly states in John 1.
I don't need anything outside of the Bible to tell me what it means,
Matthias
Well-known member
Appeal to authority fallacy. I can read what the Bible clearly states in John 1.
Tyndale read what the Bible clearly states in John 1. He didn’t allow his trinitarian faith to bias his translation.
Matthias
Well-known member
God isn’t an it. His word is. By it he created.
The life is in God’s word. It always has been.
Matthias
Well-known member
civic
Well-known member
And He is a Person who said that . The same Person who created the heavens and earth. The Son.
Matthias
Well-known member
Obviously.
No. It was his God alone who, by himself, created the heavens and the earth (Isaiah 44:24).
Yahweh spoke, and what previously had only existed in his mind was literally brought into existence.
The word of Yahweh. It accomplished what Yahweh had planned and purposed.
Peter
Member
I have not ever considered that John 1 was describing anyone but Jesus in the whole chapter from the first verse to the last.
Matthias
Well-known member
Will you consider it now?
Read, for example, the prologue of John’s Gospel in the Geneva Bible.
The word of God - “it” - was with God and was God. God created by speaking “it”.
civic
Well-known member
Exactly we see that both the Father and Son in several different passages declared they both created everything.
Matthias
Well-known member
Jesus is only one person. John 1 is describing two persons, not Jesus only. One of the persons is God. One of the persons is that God’s Messiah.
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