Runningman
Well-known member
Which is why the Word of Life is calling a thing in 1 John 1:1-3. Eternal life isn't a god.
The Unitarian belief that Jesus is not God causes those who offer worship to the Father's Throne (where Jesus sits) to be guilty of idolatry.
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civic
Well-known member
says the person who cannot find the Father ever saying: I Am God.
next fallacy ............
civic
Well-known member
Eternal Life is a Person who grants/gives it to believers.
Hence Christ is you the hope of Glory.
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Runningman
Well-known member
I have Jesus calling the Father the only God. Isn't that good enough? That word ONLY there refers to exclusivity. If John 17:3 was a wrecking ball then the trinity is in ruins. What Jesus said is not compatible with Trinitarianism.
John 17
3And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
Runningman
Well-known member
So the Father gave Jesus the authority to give Christians the Fourth Member of the Godhead?
John 17
2As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.
Even if Eternal Life is being spoken of, that's an attribute of the Word. Granted, an attribute can be viewed in a neuter sense but you're still up against the fact that the Word is viewed as a Person in John 1:
Listen, John’s understanding of The Word didn’t go from being a Person (ουτος in John 1:2) to a “thing”. Such an outlandish view can only come from a Judaizing Unitarian that has a dirt poor understanding of Greek.All pronouns of the Word ("He", "Him") are Personal!
The Word is grammatically being treated as a Person.
Where do you see the word "it"? You need new glasses.
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things came into being through Him, and without Him not even one thing came into being that has come into being.
Will you continue to remain true to your name and run away again from John 1?
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praise_yeshua
Well-known member
How about Unitarian? Have you found that word?
Runningman
Well-known member
Hence the Word is not an actual person. The Word isn't the creator in John 1:2-3, the Word isn't the True Light in John 1:9, the Word didn't incarnate as flesh, but became flesh... it took up temporary residence in Jesus, hence it made its dwelling among us or tabernacled among us.
John 1 (God's Word translation)
14The Word became human and lived among us. We saw his glory. It was the glory that the Father shares with his only Son, a glory full of kindness and truth.
Oops, you did it again. You just ran away from the Personal Pronouns of John 1:1-3:
Listen, John’s understanding of The Word didn’t go from being a Person (ουτος in John 1:2) to a “thing”. Such an outlandish view can only come from a Judaizing Unitarian that has a dirt poor understanding of Greek.All pronouns of the Word ("He", "Him") are Personal!
The Word is grammatically being treated as a Person.
Where do you see the word "it"? You need new glasses.
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things came into being through Him, and without Him not even one thing came into being that has come into being.
The Personal Pronouns pertaining to the Word Person continue and at Verse 14 the Word Person became flesh. Thank you for telling us about that Trinitarian verse. Keep those Trinitarian verses coming!
praise_yeshua
Well-known member
Funny. What is the difference between "Incarnate and became flesh"?
Do you have a temporary tabernacle?
civic
Well-known member
I have John calling Jesus the True God
I have Thomas calling Jesus God
I have Paul calling Jesus God
I have Peter calling Jesus God
I have the author of Hebrew calling Jesus God
I have Jesus calling Himself God
I have the Father calling Jesus God
You are outnumbered 7/1
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Peterlag
Well-known member
John 1:1
Jesus Christ is not a lexical definition of logos. The verse does not say "In the beginning was Jesus." The "Word" is not synonymous with Jesus, or even the "Messiah."
Runningman
Well-known member
That's my argument. John 1 is personification which would involve personal pronouns. That has been my argument across many threads. I have not run away from that and I am glad you keep bringing it up. You are running away from 1 John 1:1-3 which DOES NOT use personal pronouns regarding the Word. Understanding the argument now?
Peterlag
Well-known member
I make no mistakes when writing about the Christ. I'm one of the most knowledgeable men on the Earth concerning the subject of the resurrected Christ Jesus. I personally could not care any less if you want to interact with me. And I still stand by my word. Jesus is not God.
Sorry you just deny the context
John 1:1–18 (KJV 1900) — 1 IN the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. 4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men. 5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not. 6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. 7 The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe. 8 He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light. 9 That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world. 10 He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. 11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not. 12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: 13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. 15 John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me. 16 And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace. 17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. 18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
Now the continuity is clear the word was God and made everything that was made. The word became flesh and was testified to by john the baptist
The clearly became flesh and appeared to men as Jesus Christ
That is how you read the passage in context
R
Runningman
Well-known member
And I have Jesus calling the Father the ONLY true God. Wow, that blows your "Jesus is God" theory away. Since the Father is the ONLY true God then Jesus isn't the true God.
So what do I have.
I have YHWH stating he is the only God.
I have a number of prophets saying YHWH is the only God.
I have Jesus, John, Paul referring to the Father as the one and only God.
I have denials by Jesus himself that he isn't God.
You aren't understanding the context and nuances of the verses you're speaking of.
You've been overruled by Scripture.
Runningman
Well-known member
Do a word study on "Became" in John 1:14. Nothing about it meaning an incarnation anywhere in the Bible. You will find your answers there.
Runningman
Well-known member
God is always described as one, never three, in the Bible. That's good for me, bad news for you.
Nope You have to assume the father alone is the one true God
begging the question
BTW Jesus is YHWH as many verses show
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