The Trinity study ,plural references to God in the Old Testament:Plural nouns, pronouns, verbs, adverbs

oh wow. so you can return to the dictionary and forget about the context and usage of the words. That is not helpful in scholarly debates. I would have hoped you would have caught up to higher levels such as rhetorical criticism.
You are using Unitarian style theology and reasoning in your last post. The Word is personified like Wisdom, and we know Wisdom is not an actual person so neither is the Word, are the kind of things we say. Most of you just avoid it due to the issues it creates with your theology.
 
How about any English translations that uses the same words that you use? I never saw anyone in the Bible state anything about their beliefs that reflect what your beliefs are. Looks like you aren't the same religion as the one that Jesus taught about.
the problem is not the words. the problem is that the unitarians skip verses that show the preexistent One who becomes incarnate as Jesus. When obvious points are missed continually, i'm not sure how to continue a debate.
 
You are using Unitarian style theology and reasoning in your last post. The Word is personified like Wisdom, and we know Wisdom is not an actual person so neither is the Word, are the kind of things we say. Most of you just avoid it due to the issues it creates with your theology.
You continue on uniformed, weak arguments. You forgot the transitional material of Philo and Greek Philosophy as the bridge between something just of wisdom, words, and ideas into a description of a conscious participant in creation. So I can just assume that you are desiring to demonstrate ignorance here. Maybe the key here is to note that words do not become incarnate. But you keep insisting that mere words somehow take on flesh. That is what the consistent unitarian must declare.
 
I didn't mean that we had to start the WHOLE conversation OVER!!!

It seems you left out the 'plural intensive - singular meaning'.........

A "plural intensive" (or "plural of majesty") is a linguistic concept, primarily in Hebrew, where a noun uses a plural form (like a plural suffix) but refers to a single entity, emphasizing its greatness, majesty, or power, not its quantity. For example, the Hebrew word Elohim (God) is a plural form used to denote the singular, supreme God, conveying divine greatness rather than multiple gods, as it takes singular verbs and adjectives. -- AI

"God said" ---- said is singular therefore God is singular. That is how the Hebrew works ---- singular verbs, singular pronouns and singular adjectives ----- point to a singular subject.
Yes, and to quote Genesis 1:26, do you believe that God created all things through the Word?
I need to point out the presence of the Trinity as the usage of fist person plural pronoun "us and our" and need to identify Who make the speech for God. The Word was with God, and the Word was God, not stated as "the Word was the God" to imply it is God's speech in the creation week.

Thus the presence of the Spirit, the speech/logos and the Father in the whole Old Testament as the speech/logos became flesh only in the New Testament supported by John. (John 5:37)

Gen 1:26 Then God said, "Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; and let them rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over the cattle and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth."
 
Yes, and to quote Genesis 1:26, do you believe that God created all things through the Word?
I need to point out the presence of the Trinity as the usage of fist person plural pronoun "us and our" and need to identify Who make the speech for God. The Word was with God, and the Word was God, not stated as "the Word was the God" to imply it is God's speech in the creation week.
Thus the presence of the Spirit, the speech/logos and the Father in the whole Old Testament as the speech/logos became flesh only in the New Testament supported by John. (John 5:37)

Gen 1:26 Then God said, "Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; and let them rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over the cattle and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth."
God did create all things through HIS word - His creative speech : Repeatedly 'And God said'.
Then God had a conversation - with himself or with the other spiritual beings there with him?
<snip>
The passages where God speaks using plural pronouns, a total of four verses ---- In two of the 'us' references Gen. 3:22 and Isaiah 6:6-8 - cherubim and seraphim are present and it's highly likely that God is speaking to them. It wouldn't be beyond impossible for Gen. 1:26 and Gen. 11:5-9 to also be God speaking to his heavenly host, to the angelic beings.
So 'Let us make man' does make sense when God is actually speaking to someone else.
<snip>
 
So you can't discuss your religion using the same words that the people in the Bible discussed their religion with?
Jesus spoke Aramaic. Here is John 1:1-18 both written as Aramaic and translated.


TheHolyAramaicScriptures.com


THE EVANGELIUN OF

YSHUA MSHIKHA


According to

YUKHANAN

{Study Tool}


1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21


Chapter 1
ܒܪܫܝܬ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܡܠܬܐ ܘܗܘ ܡܠܬܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܠܘܬ ܐܠܗܐ ܘܐܠܗܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܗܘ ܡܠܬܐ
1 In the beginning there was The Miltha {The Word}, and He, The Miltha {The Word}, was with Alaha {God}. And Alaha {God} Himself was The Miltha {The Word}.

ܗܢܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܒܪܫܝܬ ܠܘܬ ܐܠܗܐ
2 This One was existing in the beginning with Alaha {God}.

ܟܠ ܒܐܝܕܗ ܗܘܐ ܘܒܠܥܕܘܗܝ ܐܦ ܠܐ ܚܕܐ ܗܘܬ ܡܕܡ ܕܗܘܐ
3 By His Hand {i.e. by His Power} anything came to be, and without Him, not even one thing came to be, which has come to be.

ܒܗ ܚܝܐ ܗܘܐ ܘܚܝܐ ܐܝܬܝܗܘܢ ܢܘܗܪܐ ܕܒܢܝܢܫܐ
4 The Khaye {The Life} existed in Him, and The Khaye {The Life} is The Nuhra {The Light} of the sons of men.

ܘܗܘ ܢܘܗܪܐ ܒܚܫܘܟܐ ܡܢܗܪ ܘܚܫܘܟܐ ܠܐ ܐܕܪܟܗ
5 And He, The Nuhra {The Light}, shines into the kheshuka {the darkness}, and the kheshuka {the darkness} hasn't overtaken it.

ܗܘܐ ܒܪ ܐܢܫܐ ܕܐܫܬܕܪ ܡܢ ܐܠܗܐ ܫܡܗ ܝܘܚܢܢ
6 There was a son of man who was sent from Alaha {God}, named Yukhanan {John}.

ܗܢܐ ܐܬܐ ܠܣܗܕܘܬܐ ܕܢܣܗܕ ܥܠ ܢܘܗܪܐ ܕܟܠ ܐܢܫ ܢܗܝܡܢ ܒܐܝܕܗ
7 This one came for a witness, so that he might testify concerning The Nuhra {The Light}, so that anyone will believe through his hand.

ܠܐ ܗܘ ܗܘܐ ܢܘܗܪܐ ܐܠܐ ܕܢܣܗܕ ܥܠ ܢܘܗܪܐ
8 He wasn't The Nuhra {The Light}; but rather, that he might testify concerning The Nuhra {The Light}.

ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܓܝܪ ܢܘܗܪܐ ܕܫܪܪܐ ܕܡܢܗܪ ܠܟܠ ܐܢܫ ܕܐܬܐ ܠܥܠܡܐ
9 For, there was The Nuhra d'Shrara {The Light of The Truth}; that which illuminates anyone who comes into the alma {the world}.

ܒܥܠܡܐ ܗܘܐ ܘܥܠܡܐ ܒܐܝܕܗ ܗܘܐ ܘܥܠܡܐ ܠܐ ܝܕܥܗ
10 He was in the alma {the world}, and the alma {the world} existed by His Hand {i.e. by His Power}, and the alma {the world} didn't know Him.

ܠܕܝܠܗ ܐܬܐ ܘܕܝܠܗ ܠܐ ܩܒܠܘܗܝ
11 He came unto His own, and His own didn't receive Him.

ܐܝܠܝܢ ܕܝܢ ܕܩܒܠܘܗܝ ܝܗܒ ܠܗܘܢ ܫܘܠܛܢܐ ܕܒܢܝܐ ܕܐܠܗܐ ܢܗܘܘܢ ܠܐܝܠܝܢ ܕܡܗܝܡܢܝܢ ܒܫܡܗ
12 But, those who have received Him, He has given Shultana {Power} unto them, so that they may become The Sons of Alaha {God}; unto those who are believing in His Name.

ܐܝܠܝܢ ܕܠܘ ܡܢ ܕܡܐ ܘܠܐ ܡܢ ܨܒܝܢܐ ܕܒܣܪܐ ܘܠܐ ܡܢ ܨܒܝܢܐ ܕܓܒܪܐ ܐܠܐ ܡܢ ܐܠܗܐ ܐܬܝܠܕܘ
13 Those who, neither from blood, nor from the desire of the flesh, and neither from the will of a gabra {a man}, but rather, were begotten from Alaha {God}.

ܘܡܠܬܐ ܒܣܪܐ ܗܘܐ ܘܐܓܢ ܒܢ ܘܚܙܝܢ ܫܘܒܚܗ ܫܘܒܚܐ ܐܝܟ ܕܝܚܝܕܝܐ ܕܡܢ ܐܒܐ ܕܡܠܐ ܛܝܒܘܬܐ ܘܩܘܫܬܐ
14 And The Miltha {The Word} became flesh {i.e. a Human Being}, and dwelt among us, and we saw His Glory, Glory as of The Unique One who is from Aba {The Father}, who is full of Taybutha {Grace} and Qushtha {Truth}.

ܝܘܚܢܢ ܣܗܕ ܥܠܘܗܝ ܘܩܥܐ ܘܐܡܪ ܗܢܘ ܗܘ ܕܐܡܪܬ ܕܒܬܪܝ ܐܬܐ ܘܗܘܐ ܠܗ ܩܕܡܝ ܡܛܠ ܕܩܕܡܝ ܗܘ ܡܢܝ
15 Yukhanan {John} testified concerning Him, and cried out and said, “This is He whom I said would come after me, for, He was before me, because He is older than me.”

ܘܡܢ ܡܠܝܘܬܗ ܚܢܢ ܟܠܢ ܢܣܒܢ ܘܛܝܒܘܬܐ ܚܠܦ ܛܝܒܘܬܐ
16 And from His fullness any of us receive, and Taybutha {Grace} for Taybutha {Grace}.

ܡܛܠ ܕܢܡܘܣܐ ܒܝܕ ܡܘܫܐ ܐܬܝܗܒ ܫܪܪܐ ܕܝܢ ܘܛܝܒܘܬܐ ܒܝܕ ܝܫܘܥ ܡܫܝܚܐ ܗܘܐ
17 Because, The Namusa {The Law} was given through Mushe {Moses}, but, Shrara {Truth} and Taybutha {Grace} came to be through Yshua Mshikha {Yahshua, The Anointed One}.

ܐܠܗܐ ܠܐ ܚܙܐ ܐܢܫ ܡܢ ܡܬܘܡ ܝܚܝܕܝܐ ܐܠܗܐ ܗܘ ܕܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܒܥܘܒܐ ܕܐܒܘܗܝ ܗܘ ܐܫܬܥܝ
18 No nash {man} has ever seen Alaha {God}. The Unique One, Alaha {God}, He who is in the bosom of His Father; He has Declared Him.
 
the problem is not the words. the problem is that the unitarians skip verses that show the preexistent One who becomes incarnate as Jesus. When obvious points are missed continually, i'm not sure how to continue a debate.
You have been prompted to show any evidence of a pre-existent Jesus repeatedly. You've been asked directly to show where he's at saying or doing anything prior to his birth. So far, you have only provided your private commentary and opinions about Jesus pre-existing, but no working examples of Jesus doing anything in the Old Testament. Therefore, you don't have any clear or direct evidence of a pre-existence. You have interpretations of verses. You can talk about this all day, but you can't put your money where you mouth is on this point.

That doesn't mean I am going to stall and stay back with you on square one where your premise has not been fully supported. You are free to stay there while I continue showing all the ways Jesus has not pre-existed, is not God, etc, but if you want to debate your beliefs against what the Bible says, get some better arguments first.
 
You continue on uniformed, weak arguments. You forgot the transitional material of Philo and Greek Philosophy as the bridge between something just of wisdom, words, and ideas into a description of a conscious participant in creation. So I can just assume that you are desiring to demonstrate ignorance here. Maybe the key here is to note that words do not become incarnate. But you keep insisting that mere words somehow take on flesh. That is what the consistent unitarian must declare.
So throughout the entire Bible words are never a person, never God, but until suddenly in John 1:1, out of the blue, defying all precedent, the Word is suddenly God in your beliefs, then after that never spoken of as God again? Just 1:1 is an outlier. The minority of verses never define the majority. You are using bad reasoning and eisegesis to come to your conclusions.

I recommend you don't get too caught up fringe ideas. Yes, the Bible says a lot of things, but it also explicitly defines the Father as God alone with no one else being God with Him. The Bible has guardrails for a reason, to guide you, but you are driving like they don't exist. Trinitarianism is a very reckless belief system.
 
Jesus spoke Aramaic. Here is John 1:1-18 both written as Aramaic and translated.


TheHolyAramaicScriptures.com


THE EVANGELIUN OF

YSHUA MSHIKHA


According to

YUKHANAN

{Study Tool}


1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21


Chapter 1
ܒܪܫܝܬ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܡܠܬܐ ܘܗܘ ܡܠܬܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܠܘܬ ܐܠܗܐ ܘܐܠܗܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܗܘ ܡܠܬܐ
1 In the beginning there was The Miltha {The Word}, and He, The Miltha {The Word}, was with Alaha {God}. And Alaha {God} Himself was The Miltha {The Word}.

ܗܢܐ ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܒܪܫܝܬ ܠܘܬ ܐܠܗܐ
2 This One was existing in the beginning with Alaha {God}.

ܟܠ ܒܐܝܕܗ ܗܘܐ ܘܒܠܥܕܘܗܝ ܐܦ ܠܐ ܚܕܐ ܗܘܬ ܡܕܡ ܕܗܘܐ
3 By His Hand {i.e. by His Power} anything came to be, and without Him, not even one thing came to be, which has come to be.

ܒܗ ܚܝܐ ܗܘܐ ܘܚܝܐ ܐܝܬܝܗܘܢ ܢܘܗܪܐ ܕܒܢܝܢܫܐ
4 The Khaye {The Life} existed in Him, and The Khaye {The Life} is The Nuhra {The Light} of the sons of men.

ܘܗܘ ܢܘܗܪܐ ܒܚܫܘܟܐ ܡܢܗܪ ܘܚܫܘܟܐ ܠܐ ܐܕܪܟܗ
5 And He, The Nuhra {The Light}, shines into the kheshuka {the darkness}, and the kheshuka {the darkness} hasn't overtaken it.

ܗܘܐ ܒܪ ܐܢܫܐ ܕܐܫܬܕܪ ܡܢ ܐܠܗܐ ܫܡܗ ܝܘܚܢܢ
6 There was a son of man who was sent from Alaha {God}, named Yukhanan {John}.

ܗܢܐ ܐܬܐ ܠܣܗܕܘܬܐ ܕܢܣܗܕ ܥܠ ܢܘܗܪܐ ܕܟܠ ܐܢܫ ܢܗܝܡܢ ܒܐܝܕܗ
7 This one came for a witness, so that he might testify concerning The Nuhra {The Light}, so that anyone will believe through his hand.

ܠܐ ܗܘ ܗܘܐ ܢܘܗܪܐ ܐܠܐ ܕܢܣܗܕ ܥܠ ܢܘܗܪܐ
8 He wasn't The Nuhra {The Light}; but rather, that he might testify concerning The Nuhra {The Light}.

ܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܗܘܐ ܓܝܪ ܢܘܗܪܐ ܕܫܪܪܐ ܕܡܢܗܪ ܠܟܠ ܐܢܫ ܕܐܬܐ ܠܥܠܡܐ
9 For, there was The Nuhra d'Shrara {The Light of The Truth}; that which illuminates anyone who comes into the alma {the world}.

ܒܥܠܡܐ ܗܘܐ ܘܥܠܡܐ ܒܐܝܕܗ ܗܘܐ ܘܥܠܡܐ ܠܐ ܝܕܥܗ
10 He was in the alma {the world}, and the alma {the world} existed by His Hand {i.e. by His Power}, and the alma {the world} didn't know Him.

ܠܕܝܠܗ ܐܬܐ ܘܕܝܠܗ ܠܐ ܩܒܠܘܗܝ
11 He came unto His own, and His own didn't receive Him.

ܐܝܠܝܢ ܕܝܢ ܕܩܒܠܘܗܝ ܝܗܒ ܠܗܘܢ ܫܘܠܛܢܐ ܕܒܢܝܐ ܕܐܠܗܐ ܢܗܘܘܢ ܠܐܝܠܝܢ ܕܡܗܝܡܢܝܢ ܒܫܡܗ
12 But, those who have received Him, He has given Shultana {Power} unto them, so that they may become The Sons of Alaha {God}; unto those who are believing in His Name.

ܐܝܠܝܢ ܕܠܘ ܡܢ ܕܡܐ ܘܠܐ ܡܢ ܨܒܝܢܐ ܕܒܣܪܐ ܘܠܐ ܡܢ ܨܒܝܢܐ ܕܓܒܪܐ ܐܠܐ ܡܢ ܐܠܗܐ ܐܬܝܠܕܘ
13 Those who, neither from blood, nor from the desire of the flesh, and neither from the will of a gabra {a man}, but rather, were begotten from Alaha {God}.

ܘܡܠܬܐ ܒܣܪܐ ܗܘܐ ܘܐܓܢ ܒܢ ܘܚܙܝܢ ܫܘܒܚܗ ܫܘܒܚܐ ܐܝܟ ܕܝܚܝܕܝܐ ܕܡܢ ܐܒܐ ܕܡܠܐ ܛܝܒܘܬܐ ܘܩܘܫܬܐ
14 And The Miltha {The Word} became flesh {i.e. a Human Being}, and dwelt among us, and we saw His Glory, Glory as of The Unique One who is from Aba {The Father}, who is full of Taybutha {Grace} and Qushtha {Truth}.

ܝܘܚܢܢ ܣܗܕ ܥܠܘܗܝ ܘܩܥܐ ܘܐܡܪ ܗܢܘ ܗܘ ܕܐܡܪܬ ܕܒܬܪܝ ܐܬܐ ܘܗܘܐ ܠܗ ܩܕܡܝ ܡܛܠ ܕܩܕܡܝ ܗܘ ܡܢܝ
15 Yukhanan {John} testified concerning Him, and cried out and said, “This is He whom I said would come after me, for, He was before me, because He is older than me.”

ܘܡܢ ܡܠܝܘܬܗ ܚܢܢ ܟܠܢ ܢܣܒܢ ܘܛܝܒܘܬܐ ܚܠܦ ܛܝܒܘܬܐ
16 And from His fullness any of us receive, and Taybutha {Grace} for Taybutha {Grace}.

ܡܛܠ ܕܢܡܘܣܐ ܒܝܕ ܡܘܫܐ ܐܬܝܗܒ ܫܪܪܐ ܕܝܢ ܘܛܝܒܘܬܐ ܒܝܕ ܝܫܘܥ ܡܫܝܚܐ ܗܘܐ
17 Because, The Namusa {The Law} was given through Mushe {Moses}, but, Shrara {Truth} and Taybutha {Grace} came to be through Yshua Mshikha {Yahshua, The Anointed One}.

ܐܠܗܐ ܠܐ ܚܙܐ ܐܢܫ ܡܢ ܡܬܘܡ ܝܚܝܕܝܐ ܐܠܗܐ ܗܘ ܕܐܝܬܘܗܝ ܒܥܘܒܐ ܕܐܒܘܗܝ ܗܘ ܐܫܬܥܝ
18 No nash {man} has ever seen Alaha {God}. The Unique One, Alaha {God}, He who is in the bosom of His Father; He has Declared Him.

This doesn't force any identity on the Word. The Word has the qualities or nature of God, not the identity of God. No inference that the Word is the same God that the Word was with. This isn't much different than Greek-to-English translations that highlight how God created Jesus, not incarnated.
 
This doesn't force any identity on the Word. The Word has the qualities or nature of God, not the identity of God. No inference that the Word is the same God that the Word was with. This isn't much different than Greek-to-English translations that highlight how God created Jesus, not incarnated.
How can anyone possibly have the qualities (omnipresence, omnipotence, omniscience, eternal personhood, etc...) of God or the nature (eternal, uncreated, etc...) of God and not be God???? Maybe you have many acquaintances who have those exact qualities or nature of God which is why you're so dismissive of Jesus being the tabernacled Word (John 1:14) who was God (John 1:1c). It's either that or many other reasons. If you don't reveal why you're so dismissive, I'm going to continue to offer more possible reasons....
 
How can anyone possibly have the qualities (omnipresence, omnipotence, omniscience, eternal personhood, etc...) of God or the nature (eternal, uncreated, etc...) of God and not be God???? Maybe you have many acquaintances who have those exact qualities or nature of God which is why you're so dismissive of Jesus being the tabernacled Word (John 1:14) who was God (John 1:1c). It's either that or many other reasons. If you don't reveal why you're so dismissive, I'm going to continue to offer more possible reasons....
Not those qualities, as Jesus doesn't even have those. The qualities that things like the Word can have of God are righteousness, holiness, things like that. Big giveaway that the Word is not actually God because it's not the same God it's with. Then we still have 1 John 1:1-3 calling the Word a thing, the Word never being God before or after John 1:1, etc. Yeah it's pretty definitive that the trinity is bunk theology.
 
Not those qualities, as Jesus doesn't even have those. The qualities that things like the Word can have of God are righteousness, holiness, things like that. Big giveaway that the Word is not actually God because it's not the same God it's with. Then we still have 1 John 1:1-3 calling the Word a thing, the Word never being God before or after John 1:1, etc. Yeah it's pretty definitive that the trinity is bunk theology.
Right ...... there is a slight difference in 'attributes' and 'qualities' ---- God's attributes would be omniscient, omnipotent, omnipresent, immortal (eternal personhood), invisible - innate attributes which inherently make God who he is, God.

The word being 'qualitative' would mean that whatever is righteous, just, holy, gracious, faithful, kind, loving makes the word like God and those qualities became flesh as the only Son from the Father and dwelt among us. :)
 
Not those qualities,
Not those qualities??? Then what type of God are you talking about? Norse gods? How about Roman or Greek gods? None of them were omnipresent so they qualify as the gods you're basing your case on. Sorry, the Apostles were not referring to pagan gods like you're doing. You have a major problem here, my friend. It's back to the heresies drawing board for you.
as Jesus doesn't even have those. The qualities that things like the Word can have of God are righteousness, holiness, things like that. Big giveaway that the Word is not actually God because it's not the same God it's with. Then we still have 1 John 1:1-3 calling the Word a thing, the Word never being God before or after John 1:1, etc. Yeah it's pretty definitive that the trinity is bunk theology.
Again, you continue to display your willful ignorance of Greek. John makes use of Greek-styled neuter pronouns in 1 John 1 to refer to an abstracted or collective reality, as he did in John 3:6: “That which is born of the Spirit is spirit.” We can all agree that a thing is not born of Spirit, people are. Right?
 
Right ...... there is a slight difference in 'attributes' and 'qualities' ---- God's attributes would be omniscient, omnipotent, omnipresent, immortal (eternal personhood), invisible - innate attributes which inherently make God who he is, God.

The word being 'qualitative' would mean that whatever is righteous, just, holy, gracious, faithful, kind, loving makes the word like God and those qualities became flesh as the only Son from the Father and dwelt among us. :)
Tell us more about the Norse, Roman and Greek gods, with their qualities and non-attributes. None of them were omnipresent so they qualify as the gods you and RM are basing your case on.
 
Not those qualities??? Then what type of God are you talking about? Norse gods? How about Roman or Greek gods? None of them were omnipresent so they qualify as the gods you're basing your case on. Sorry, the Apostles were not referring to pagan gods like you're doing. You have a major problem here, my friend. It's back to the heresies drawing board for you.

Again, you continue to display your willful ignorance of Greek. John makes use of Greek-styled neuter pronouns in 1 John 1 to refer to an abstracted or collective reality, as he did in John 3:6: “That which is born of the Spirit is spirit.” We can all agree that a thing is not born of Spirit, people are. Right?
Not like that because Jesus is not ever described as an eternal being, not omnipotent, not omniscient, etc. There are plenty examples where the Son in your trinity does not contain those particular characteristics of God, but represents God perfectly in terms on nature, namely the fruits of the Spirit, as @amazing grace so excellently pointed out.
 
You have been prompted to show any evidence of a pre-existent Jesus repeatedly. You've been asked directly to show where he's at saying or doing anything prior to his birth. So far, you have only provided your private commentary and opinions about Jesus pre-existing, but no working examples of Jesus doing anything in the Old Testament. Therefore, you don't have any clear or direct evidence of a pre-existence.
You have dodged a fact throughout the entire time I have known you .

Can you answer me in what year the son of God was born from Mary ... and how he got his name..... and when that name was told that he had to be called that.. This is not a trick question, it goes to the point that for all your bellyaching with multiple people about showing you where he's at saying or doing anything prior to his birth,
is merely your way of deflecting what you know to be true, but are afraid to admit it.

“Show me Jesus doing or saying something before His birth.”?????????????????????????????????/

If someone expects to see “Jesus of Nazareth walking around talking before Bethlehem,” then no — you will not find that exact form. Because the man Jesus begins at the incarnation (John 1:14).

But Scripture teaches that the Person who became Jesus already existed as the Word/Son before taking flesh.

So the evidence you seek is not “baby Jesus in Genesis,” but the pre-incarnate Son/Word acting before becoming flesh.

Your trouble is you do not want to understand this.....!

Here’s how you can see it biblically and clearly. We will start with..............

1. Direct statements of pre-existence


These are not symbolic — they’re plain claims.

John 8:58 “Before Abraham was, I AM.”

Not “I was.” Present tense, divine name (Exodus 3:14).

The Jews tried to stone Him because they understood this as: pre-existence and divine identity
John 17: 5 "Father , glorify me...with the glory I had with you before the world existed.”

Jesus explicitly says He was with the Father before creation sharing divine glory.

There is no way to read that as only “planned in God’s mind.”

John 6:38 “I came down from heaven.”​

You cannot “come down” from somewhere you never were.

Philippians 2:6–7 “Who, being in the form of God… emptied himself, taking the form of a servant.”


The proper sequence is he, existed in God’s form ...then took human form.

That is pre-existence before incarnation.

2. John tells us who He was before birth

John 1:1–3, 14 “In the beginning was the Word… the Word was with God… all things were made by him…And the Word became flesh.”

The only logical way to understand this is He already was , He created all things , then He became flesh

You cannot become something you didn’t exist before.


So: Word , existed then created then became Jesus

You are concerned about....

3. Old Testament appearances of the pre-incarnate Son​

This answers the “doing or saying anything before birth” part more directly. Many Christians understand the Angel of the LORD passages this way.

Why?

Because this figure: speaks as God , is called God , yet is distinct from God.

Examples you can look up for yourself.

Genesis 16 – Hagar


The Angel of the LORD speaks, Then it says:

“She called the name of the LORD that spoke to her, Thou God seest me.

Therefore, Angel = LORD = God

Exodus 3 – Burning bush​

“The Angel of the LORD appeared…” then “God called to him out of the bush…”

Same person.

1 Corinthians 10:4, 9 (huge )​

Paul says: “They drank… that Rock was Christ…neither let us tempt Christ, as some of them tempted…”

Paul directly identifies Christ as active in the Exodus.

That is explicit New Testament commentary saying: Christ was there.

4. Reasoning


So you say Jesus didn’t exist before birth? Tell me “Then who created the world?”

Because Scripture says: All things made by Him (John 1:3) , By Him all things were created (Col 1:16) , Through whom also He made the worlds (Heb 1:2)

If He created everything, He must exist before everything.


Now here is the clarification you need to avoid confusion:

Jesus as a man
..... begins at Bethlehem
The Son/Word ..... eternal

Therefore
not pre-existent flesh ..... but pre-existent Person


To sum this up.

Jesus didn’t exist as a man before Bethlehem, but the Person who became Jesus did.
Scripture says He was with the Father before creation (John 17:5), came down from heaven (John 6:38), created all things (John 1:3; Col 1:16), and even appeared in the OT (1 Cor 10:4).
The Word existed first — then became flesh (John 1:14).


tipping_hat_smiley - Copy.gif "Good night, Mrs. Calabash, wherever you are."
You have interpretations of verses. You can talk about this all day, but you can't put your money where you mouth is on this point.

That doesn't mean I am going to stall and stay back with you on square one where your premise has not been fully supported. You are free to stay there while I continue showing all the ways Jesus has not pre-existed, is not God, etc, but if you want to debate your beliefs against what the Bible says, get some better arguments first.
 
Tell us more about the Norse, Roman and Greek gods, with their qualities and non-attributes. None of them were omnipresent so they qualify as the gods you and RM are basing your case on.
I know nothing about Norse, Roman, or Greek gods.

I know that the Greeks thought gods (sound familiar!) came to earth and the only way I know that is from the record in Acts where the Gentiles thought Paul and Barnabas were gods, i.e. Zeus and Hermes.

Although I have seen Disney movies that depicted Zeus and I think Thor.........
 
You have been prompted to show any evidence of a pre-existent Jesus repeatedly. You've been asked directly to show where he's at saying or doing anything prior to his birth. So far, you have only provided your private commentary and opinions about Jesus pre-existing, but no working examples of Jesus doing anything in the Old Testament. Therefore, you don't have any clear or direct evidence of a pre-existence. You have interpretations of verses. You can talk about this all day, but you can't put your money where you mouth is on this point.

That doesn't mean I am going to stall and stay back with you on square one where your premise has not been fully supported. You are free to stay there while I continue showing all the ways Jesus has not pre-existed, is not God, etc, but if you want to debate your beliefs against what the Bible says, get some better arguments first.
we have the testimony of what Jesus said and John shared. But that is not enough for unitarians.
We show probable examples of the Angel of the Lord that is probably the One who became incarnate and known as Jesus. But that is not enough for unitarians.
There simply is not enough evidence of who Jesus is such that a unitarian would be satisfied with his pre-existence.
 
So throughout the entire Bible words are never a person, never God, but until suddenly in John 1:1, out of the blue, defying all precedent, the Word is suddenly God in your beliefs, then after that never spoken of as God again? Just 1:1 is an outlier. The minority of verses never define the majority. You are using bad reasoning and eisegesis to come to your conclusions.

I recommend you don't get too caught up fringe ideas. Yes, the Bible says a lot of things, but it also explicitly defines the Father as God alone with no one else being God with Him. The Bible has guardrails for a reason, to guide you, but you are driving like they don't exist. Trinitarianism is a very reckless belief system.
Again. you miss all of John 1. You miss Jesus and John the Baptist speaking of the One who became incarnate as Jesus. There never is an adequate reason shared by unitarians to dismiss their testimony but they keep denying the obvious meaning.
 
You have dodged a fact throughout the entire time I have known you .

Can you answer me in what year the son of God was born from Mary ... and how he got his name..... and when that name was told that he had to be called that.. This is not a trick question, it goes to the point that for all your bellyaching with multiple people about showing you where he's at saying or doing anything prior to his birth,
is merely your way of deflecting what you know to be true, but are afraid to admit it.

“Show me Jesus doing or saying something before His birth.”?????????????????????????????????/

If someone expects to see “Jesus of Nazareth walking around talking before Bethlehem,” then no — you will not find that exact form. Because the man Jesus begins at the incarnation (John 1:14).

But Scripture teaches that the Person who became Jesus already existed as the Word/Son before taking flesh.

So the evidence you seek is not “baby Jesus in Genesis,” but the pre-incarnate Son/Word acting before becoming flesh.

Your trouble is you do not want to understand this.....!

Here’s how you can see it biblically and clearly. We will start with..............

1. Direct statements of pre-existence


These are not symbolic — they’re plain claims.

John 8:58 “Before Abraham was, I AM.”

Not “I was.” Present tense, divine name (Exodus 3:14).

The Jews tried to stone Him because they understood this as: pre-existence and divine identity
John 17: 5 "Father , glorify me...with the glory I had with you before the world existed.”

Jesus explicitly says He was with the Father before creation sharing divine glory.

There is no way to read that as only “planned in God’s mind.”

John 6:38 “I came down from heaven.”​

You cannot “come down” from somewhere you never were.

Philippians 2:6–7 “Who, being in the form of God… emptied himself, taking the form of a servant.”


The proper sequence is he, existed in God’s form ...then took human form.

That is pre-existence before incarnation.

2. John tells us who He was before birth

John 1:1–3, 14 “In the beginning was the Word… the Word was with God… all things were made by him…And the Word became flesh.”

The only logical way to understand this is He already was , He created all things , then He became flesh

You cannot become something you didn’t exist before.


So: Word , existed then created then became Jesus

You are concerned about....

3. Old Testament appearances of the pre-incarnate Son​

This answers the “doing or saying anything before birth” part more directly. Many Christians understand the Angel of the LORD passages this way.

Why?

Because this figure: speaks as God , is called God , yet is distinct from God.

Examples you can look up for yourself.

Genesis 16 – Hagar


The Angel of the LORD speaks, Then it says:

“She called the name of the LORD that spoke to her, Thou God seest me.

Therefore, Angel = LORD = God

Exodus 3 – Burning bush​

“The Angel of the LORD appeared…” then “God called to him out of the bush…”

Same person.

1 Corinthians 10:4, 9 (huge )​

Paul says: “They drank… that Rock was Christ…neither let us tempt Christ, as some of them tempted…”

Paul directly identifies Christ as active in the Exodus.

That is explicit New Testament commentary saying: Christ was there.

4. Reasoning


So you say Jesus didn’t exist before birth? Tell me “Then who created the world?”

Because Scripture says: All things made by Him (John 1:3) , By Him all things were created (Col 1:16) , Through whom also He made the worlds (Heb 1:2)

If He created everything, He must exist before everything.


Now here is the clarification you need to avoid confusion:

Jesus as a man
..... begins at Bethlehem
The Son/Word ..... eternal

Therefore
not pre-existent flesh ..... but pre-existent Person


To sum this up.

Jesus didn’t exist as a man before Bethlehem, but the Person who became Jesus did.
Scripture says He was with the Father before creation (John 17:5), came down from heaven (John 6:38), created all things (John 1:3; Col 1:16), and even appeared in the OT (1 Cor 10:4).
The Word existed first — then became flesh (John 1:14).


View attachment 2812 "Good night, Mrs. Calabash, wherever you are."
There is no Jesus in the Old Testament. No Jesus means he wasn't there. All there are are prophecies of a future messiah who would be born later. What the Bible doesn't say is a very powerful argument. Checkmate.
 
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