Taking credit for your salvation

I pretend nothing; I am set free from the law of sin and death! Whether I walk in that truth is my choice and ability, but as has been noted many times, “Therefore, brothers and sisters, we have an obligation—but it is not to the flesh, to live according to it. For if you live according to the flesh, you will die; but if by the Spirit you put to death the misdeeds of the body, you will live.” (Rom 8:12-13)


Doug

You're disconnecting your own experience with sin from your theological position.

You have a theoretical position that isn't practical. Not practical relative to our experience in flesh. It is thusly a goal that we reach for. A maturity wherein we prove we are above sin. I've never gotten there myself. I haven't obtained. Sometimes willingly and sometimes literally restricted by my flesh contrary to my own desire not to be.

This is the evidence of a Christian. We are always "getting up" and reaching ahead. God enjoys the faithful that trust in God's endless future forgiveness. Does my trust in God make me more of a sinner?

I can assure you that I'm as close to God in deed today than I have been probably in my entire life. A "backslider in heart is filled with his own ways". I've certainly been different in my life. Chastening is admitting our sinfulness.
 
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Nope you must first deal with the text under discussion and what it states,

after that we can seek confirmation from other texts.

You seem to think the text means we can be sinlessly perfect, I do not been it does but I do believe it indicates a general pattern in our life

If the statement is an absolute Tom, then there is only one pattern of compliance. There is no "general pattern" mentioned in the verse. Please point it out?

I can think way ahead in this argument. There is a reason "might" is in the verse and you're confirming why with your "general pattern" comments.
 
The flesh dies. Some die earlier than others. Some live huge meaningful lives in the flesh. The man Adam that brought a curse upon us all lived to be almost a 1000 years old. I'd say he pleased God.
The verses are still there

Romans 8:12–13 (KJV 1900) — 12 Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh. 13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.

and you are not dealing with them
 
If the statement is an absolute Tom, then there is only one pattern of compliance. There is no "general pattern" mentioned in the verse. Please point it out?

I can think way ahead in this argument. There is a reason "might" is in the verse and you're confirming why with your "general pattern" comments.
That appears to be an assumption

Paul in chapter 7 speaks not of a man capable of living life generally in accordance with the requiremwents of the law. That man is not the man we see in chapter 8

I do not see how you can compare an unregenerate man with the man who has been regenerated. You make him just as incapable so what has regeneration accomplished in your view

Ezekiel 36:26–27 (KJV 1900) — 26 A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh. 27 And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.

It really seems like you are denying the power of regeneration
 
If the statement is an absolute Tom, then there is only one pattern of compliance. There is no "general pattern" mentioned in the verse. Please point it out?

I can think way ahead in this argument. There is a reason "might" is in the verse and you're confirming why with your "general pattern" comments.
I have already shown you do not understand the subjunctive mood



II. The Subjunctive Mood

A. Definition

1. General Definition

The subjunctive is the most common of the oblique moods in the NT. In general, the subjunctive can be said to represent the verbal action (or state) as uncertain but probable. It is not correct to call this the mood of uncertainty because the optative also presents the verb as uncertain. Rather, it is better to call it the mood of probability so as to distinguish it from the optative


Daniel B. Wallace, Greek Grammar beyond the Basics: An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 1996), 461.

Couple that with the iva clause mentioned by Doug

Romans 8:3–4 (KJV 1900) — 3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: 4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

God sent his son for the purpose ....... that (iva) the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

If your claim were true then God's purpose had failed

The sending of the son and the condemning of sin in the flesh achieved nothing
 
You're framing the exact same style of argument that Calvinists use with their use of "blurbs".
Whatever “blurbs” means…

You're living a very small area and defining your theology based upon doctrinal positions relative to what you believe about "ἵνα".

It is Greek syntax. Nothing more, nothing less. Ignoring such foundational facts by using your self-directed solo research is dangerous.

Doug
 
The verses are still there

Romans 8:12–13 (KJV 1900) — 12 Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh. 13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.

and you are not dealing with them

Sure I did. I'll add to it.

1Co 5:5 To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

Do you see that word flesh? What does it mean beyond the life of this body.
 
The word used is ἐπιθυμία: the “desire for what is forbidden, lust (Vulg.concupiscentia): Romans 7:7; James 1:14; 2 Peter 1:4; πάθοςἐπιθυμίας” (Thayer)

It means a desire for what is wrong, and concupiscence is an appropriate translation. There is nothing wrong with that translation in itself.

Doug

You are deceptive responding to me. I wrote much more than this and you're ignoring it. Why? Is that Christlike of you?

Concupiscence is a false doctrine of Augustine that preached by many "reformed" individuals. It is not a translation. Lust is a proper translation.

You are trying to define "lust" with the doctrine of Concupiscence
 
Whatever “blurbs” means…



It is Greek syntax. Nothing more, nothing less. Ignoring such foundational facts by using your self-directed solo research is dangerous.

Doug

Did you reference a dictionary? Is English your primary language. There is no need to :"wonder"....


"A blurb is a short piece of writing that describes or summarizes something longer and more complicated" from vocabulary.com

Uses what you think you know about Greek in a "blurb" is much WORSE relative to danger.
 
I have already shown you do not understand the subjunctive mood

I understand it just fine. Why are you being deceptive? Are you fulfilling the law of God in being Christlike?

If you insist upon a "general righteousness" from Christians you certainly aren't meeting your own standard.

II. The Subjunctive Mood

A. Definition

1. General Definition

The subjunctive is the most common of the oblique moods in the NT. In general, the subjunctive can be said to represent the verbal action (or state) as uncertain but probable. It is not correct to call this the mood of uncertainty because the optative also presents the verb as uncertain. Rather, it is better to call it the mood of probability so as to distinguish it from the optative

So how long have you known of Wallace? I can't remember if you've ever mentioned Wallace before. I have. Is that why you chose Wallace now?

What you are doing is extending the word beyond it's semantic range.

Tell me, do you think Paul was a expert in Greek Grammar? Did some scribe correct his potential mistakes here?

You don't even know the evidence. I do. So go dig deeper and continue to insist you know something you can't possible prove. I don't care what Wallace had to say about it. Linguistics is complicated and often overstated. You are extending the word beyond its semantic range.

If your claim were true then God's purpose had failed

The sending of the son and the condemning of sin in the flesh achieved nothing

It must not have achieved anything in you because you certain still sin and have relegated your righteousness to a "general righteousness" thereby denying and contradicting your own beliefs.
 
I understand it just fine. Why are you being deceptive? Are you fulfilling the law of God in being Christlike?

It does not seem that you do. Had you, you would not be trying to construct an argument around it

You have not shown anything deceptive

It is customary to provide evidence if you are going to make claims

and why are you addressing me instead of the passage


If you insist upon a "general righteousness" from Christians you certainly aren't meeting your own standard.

Um you are not the judge. And maybe your motives are a bit skewed here

But this is supposed to be a discussion of a biblical text

Why are you not addressing it




So how long have you known of Wallace? I can't remember if you've ever mentioned Wallace before. I have. Is that why you chose Wallace now?

Years. Your memory has no bearing on the issue. I have no idea whether you have mentioned Wallace before or not but what makes you think I would find it significant if you mentioned him

I have many grammars
What you are doing is extending the word beyond it's semantic range.
Word?

We are talking about the subjunctive mood

You have not shown that I have extended anything beyond its semantic range
Tell me, do you think Paul was a expert in Greek Grammar? Did some scribe correct his potential mistakes here?

You don't even know the evidence. I do. So go dig deeper and continue to insist you know something you can't possible prove. I don't care what Wallace had to say about it. Linguistics is complicated and often overstated. You are extending the word beyond its semantic range.

So Wallace is not expert enough, but you are?

Do you seriously expect anyone to buy that

BTW I can quote other sources as well

General Information: Why is there a Subjunctive Mood? It is a mood of possibility and potentiality. Thus, if a Greek writer wanted to put into words some ideas or thoughts that involved purpose, possibility, intention, or potentiality, he could use the Subjunctive Mood

Fredrick J. Long, Kairos: A Beginning Greek Grammar (Mishawaka, IN: Fredrick J. Long, 2005), 204–205.


(2) The deliberative subjunctive is used in questions of possibility, desirability, or necessity.


N. Clayton Croy, A Primer of Biblical Greek (Grand Rapids, MI; Cambridge, U.K.: William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, 1999), 139.

The Subjunctive mood expresses possibility or probability. It is almost like the indicative in the future time with a “maybe” or “possibly” or even “probably” attached to it.

Edward W. Goodrick, Do It Yourself Hebrew and Greek: A Guide to Biblical Language Tools (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 1980), x.

I have about a dozen in all


It must not have achieved anything in you because you certain still sin and have relegated your righteousness to a "general righteousness" thereby denying and contradicting your own beliefs.
sorry you are simply ignoring the text and addressing the person rather than the evidence

That is not biblical argumentation

Romans 8:3–13 (KJV 1900) — 3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: 4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. 5 For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit. 6 For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace. 7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. 8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God. 9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. 10 And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness. 11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you. 12 Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh. 13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.

Please confine yourself to the passage under discussion
 
Sure I did. I'll add to it.

1Co 5:5 To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

Do you see that word flesh? What does it mean beyond the life of this body.
I do not see where you did

Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh. 13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.

How can you deny the possibility of mortifying the deeds of the body
 
It does not seem that you do. Had you, you would not be trying to construct an argument around it

I'm going to try this one more time and I'm going to slow down. You want to bloviate about this. I'm not going to let you do this.

You brought external information that you consider authoritative. INTO this discussion. I didn't. YOU DID. I accepted your scripture and then claimed you misunderstood it. The English word "Might" is NOT a definitive declaration. You then brought in external evidence into the argument that I do not accept as being authoritative. You did. Not I. You did. The onus is upon you to prove these men are authoritative. They are not.

I don't recognizes Wallace as being authority. I don't recognize Thayer as being authoritative. I don't recognize your external evidence as being authoritative. Show me God's stamp of approval please?

Wallace is better than most but he has ZERO authority to define the underling grammar of the Scriptures. No one does. I make my own arguments. I know the subject myself.

The idea you can bring external evidence into the argument and assume it is relative in and of itself is a mistake on your part.

I said very clearly. "You are extending the word beyond its semantic range."
Establish the semantic range..... Do the work. Don't quote other men at men and expect me to accept what they say. They have an agenda. Everyone of them do. Everyone of them. You are too. I am too. Stop assuming men settle the argument just because they "said so".

Also, repeating a false claim doesn't establishing that claim to be true. You don't want to move on from this argument because you are trying to limit all the evidence contrary to your position.

Define the "semantic range"... Hint....

You can't establish "subjective mood" without establishing semantic range. You made the argument. You define the semantic range. The only proper and viable method of determining the meaning of ancient words is through a broad cross study of words and their uses throughout the entirety of revelation and history. In other words, their "semantic range". Once you establish this, then you can begin to construct a methodology to draw conclusions. Grammar varies greatly across extant manuscript evidence. Why do you think Wallace is preserving manuscripts now? It is establish patterns and lock down variables.

I'll give you a recommendation. If all you ever do is study the words of other men, then you'll never been who you need to be. If you want to have this discussion with me and get into this type of detail in an attempt to preserve your broken argument then you must do the work yourself. I'm not going to accept the sources you bring to the table "just because".....nor am I going to recognize you as being an expert in the field.

Anyone can pick up a book and post what it says. It is another thing entirely to know why those words were chosen.
 
I do not see where you did

Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh. 13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.

How can you deny the possibility of mortifying the deeds of the body

How do you mortify something that comes back tomorrow and the next day and the next day?

You never really kill it. You keep beating it down.
 
How do you mortify something that comes back tomorrow and the next day and the next day?

You never really kill it. You keep beating it down.
What did scripture say

Romans 8:3–13 (KJV 1900) — 3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: 4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. 5 For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit. 6 For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace. 7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. 8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God. 9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. 10 And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness. 11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you. 12 Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh. 13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.
 
What did scripture say

Romans 8:3–13 (KJV 1900) — 3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: 4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. 5 For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit. 6 For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace. 7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. 8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God. 9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. 10 And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness. 11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you. 12 Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh. 13 For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live.

The problem isn't with what the Scriptures say. It is how you interpret them.

It is a simple question. You claim you can kill something. Yet, you admit the problem is still there later. You obviously didn't kill it if it is still there later.......

The problem is with you. The way you're interpreting these Scriptures. The writer isn't actually claiming to "kill" the deeds of the flesh.

I hate that you get this way. I do. I don't have to discuss this with you.

It is an analogy. As such it doesn't have a literally application of actually KILLING the deeds of the flesh. You prove this every time you sin. Which is more often than you want to admit.
 
I'm going to try this one more time and I'm going to slow down. You want to bloviate about this. I'm not going to let you do this.

You brought external information that you consider authoritative. INTO this discussion. I didn't. YOU DID. I accepted your scripture and then claimed you misunderstood it. The English word "Might" is NOT a definitive declaration. You then brought in external evidence into the argument that I do not accept as being authoritative. You did. Not I. You did. The onus is upon you to prove these men are authoritative. They are not.

I don't recognizes Wallace as being authority. I don't recognize Thayer as being authoritative. I don't recognize your external evidence as being authoritative. Show me God's stamp of approval please?

Wallace is better than most but he has ZERO authority to define the underling grammar of the Scriptures. No one does. I make my own arguments. I know the subject myself.

The idea you can bring external evidence into the argument and assume it is relative in and of itself is a mistake on your part.

I said very clearly. "You are extending the word beyond its semantic range."
Establish the semantic range..... Do the work. Don't quote other men at men and expect me to accept what they say. They have an agenda. Everyone of them do. Everyone of them. You are too. I am too. Stop assuming men settle the argument just because they "said so".

Also, repeating a false claim doesn't establishing that claim to be true. You don't want to move on from this argument because you are trying to limit all the evidence contrary to your position.

Define the "semantic range"... Hint....

You can't establish "subjective mood" without establishing semantic range. You made the argument. You define the semantic range. The only proper and viable method of determining the meaning of ancient words is through a broad cross study of words and their uses throughout the entirety of revelation and history. In other words, their "semantic range". Once you establish this, then you can begin to construct a methodology to draw conclusions. Grammar varies greatly across extant manuscript evidence. Why do you think Wallace is preserving manuscripts now? It is establish patterns and lock down variables.

I'll give you a recommendation. If all you ever do is study the words of other men, then you'll never been who you need to be. If you want to have this discussion with me and get into this type of detail in an attempt to preserve your broken argument then you must do the work yourself. I'm not going to accept the sources you bring to the table "just because".....nor am I going to recognize you as being an expert in the field.

Anyone can pick up a book and post what it says. It is another thing entirely to know why those words were chosen.
Sorry, I gave you a text which you have not addressed in full

You tried to make an argument based on the word might

If you are going to discuss this you have to go to lexical grammatical resources

I gave you multiple citiations and spoke of how it fits with a purpose clause introduced by IVA

all you did is reject Greek scholarship and cite your own opinion.

If they cannot speak authoritatively on the grammar how do you imagine you can?

You then began discussing me

I am not the topic and as i noted that is not biblical argumentation

I do not believe you have properly interacted with the text

Romans 8:1–13 (NIV) — 1 Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus, 2 because through Christ Jesus the law of the Spirit who gives life has set you free from the law of sin and death. 3 For what the law was powerless to do because it was weakened by the flesh, God did by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh to be a sin offering. And so he condemned sin in the flesh, 4 in order that the righteous requirement of the law might be fully met in us, who do not live according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.

For this reason God sent his son. According to your interpretation it was a failure


5 Those who live according to the flesh have their minds set on what the flesh desires; but those who live in accordance with the Spirit have their minds set on what the Spirit desires. 6 The mind governed by the flesh is death, but the mind governed by the Spirit is life and peace. 7 The mind governed by the flesh is hostile to God; it does not submit to God’s law, nor can it do so. 8 Those who are in the realm of the flesh cannot please God. 9 You, however, are not in the realm of the flesh but are in the realm of the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God lives in you.

those in the flesh cannot submit to the law of God. If you are going to argue the regenerated cannot either then the regenerate man is still in the flesh contrary to the text






And if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, they do not belong to Christ. 10 But if Christ is in you, then even though your body is subject to death because of sin, the Spirit gives life because of righteousness.

And if the spirit is in you, you have life because of righteousness.





11 And if the Spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead is living in you, he who raised Christ from the dead will also give life to your mortal bodies because of his Spirit who lives in you. 12 Therefore, brothers and sisters, we have an obligation—but it is not to the flesh, to live according to it. 13 For if you live according to the flesh, you will die; but if by the Spirit you put to death the misdeeds of the body, you will live.

those who do not put to death the misdeeds of the body will die. If none can put to death the misdeeds of the body none live

further in chapter 6

Romans 6:1–14 (KJV 1900) — 1 What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound? 2 God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein? 3 Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death? 4 Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life. 5 For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection: 6 Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin. 7 For he that is dead is freed from sin. 8 Now if we be dead with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with him: 9 Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more; death hath no more dominion over him. 10 For in that he died, he died unto sin once: but in that he liveth, he liveth unto God. 11 Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord. 12 Let not sin therefore reign in your mortal body, that ye should obey it in the lusts thereof. 13 Neither yield ye your members as instruments of unrighteousness unto sin: but yield yourselves unto God, as those that are alive from the dead, and your members as instruments of righteousness unto God. 14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.

Our old man has been crucified and sin no longer has dominion over us.
 
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The problem isn't with what the Scriptures say. It is how you interpret them.

It is a simple question. You claim you can kill something. Yet, you admit the problem is still there later. You obviously didn't kill it if it is still there later.......

The problem is with you. The way you're interpreting these Scriptures. The writer isn't actually claiming to "kill" the deeds of the flesh.

I hate that you get this way. I do. I don't have to discuss this with you.

It is an analogy. As such it doesn't have a literally application of actually KILLING the deeds of the flesh. You prove this every time you sin. Which is more often than you want to admit.

You simply cannot tell me that to put to death the misdeeds of the body allows for a complete inability to avoid all misdeeds of the body and remain just as bound by sin as the unregenerate man

That is a powerless regeneration and not biblical.
 
You simply cannot tell me that to put to death the misdeeds of the body allows for a complete inability to avoid all misdeeds of the body and remain just as bound by sin as the unregenerate man

That is a powerless regeneration and not biblical.
As for me I do agree with what you're saying.

So we see rhetoric in the scriptures going two ways. We are to put to death the misdeeds of the body and yet the Bible says we ARE dead free from sin. One might ask then what are we? Why would you need to put to death that which is already dead? That's how God looks upon us in the new creation. We're exhorted to lock into that way of thinking. But we're to do this every day by a process of reckoning it so. It's through actions of declaring and decreeing it so quoting the scripture that makes a clearance way for God's resurrection LIFE to continually have the reality in our experience.

The old man did die, isn't left in a place of just dying....but it did die. Water baptism serves as a reminder to our consciousness that that which is dead is buried . You don't bury dying people. You bury only that which is dead. By declaring and decreeing this (reckoning daily) its the same as my airplane illustration mentioned. Gravity is cancelled out although it still exists because you're applying the principle of active faith (like law of lift and thrust) you ascend elevated above the law of sin and death . One is not bound by the law of sin and death as they continue to do this. It's a daily thing though.....even an hourly thing a moment by moment walking in God's LIFE and LIGHT.
 
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