Christianity often appeals to Judaism as source of originating information for Christianity. However, Judaism is historically very messy.
As any Jew what they believe and they will appeal to the "Talmud" as evidence. Big problem there. The Western and Eastern Talmud is dramatically different. Dramatically. Each take different paths to the present. Yet, even Messianic Jews will base their theology on the flawed existence of the Talmud.
Not only this, I could name many more reasons why the historical narrative for Judaism is controlled by unbelief in Jesus Christ.
I must ask, why do some Christians insist upon a Christianity based upon a narrative rooted in Judaism when that narrative is based in unbelief?
I find the argument promoted by this world's religious system concerning the difference between "Judaism" and "Christian" fascinating.
I have asked many times for a definition of "Judaism" and one for "Christian" too, but no one knows, or no one seems to be able to articulate a definition. And certainly there is one true definition for both words.
Unless you can define "Judaism", these threads are "vain jangling". So what is Judaism?
Is it the manmade doctrines, traditions and philosophies of the Talmud? Or is it the "Commandments, Judgments and Statutes of God, as defined by Moses, that Jesus lived by and walked in?
In other words, did Jesus live in "Judaism" or were the Pharisees the "Judaizers"?
I have heard a deceiver once say that Jesus taught different Laws than what God gave through Moses. And although it is true that Jesus was the High Priest of a New Priesthood, (Not after the Order of Aaron, as Prophesied) and that the temporary "works of the Law" for remission is sins, added "Till the SEED should come", had changed, as also prophesied, God's instruction in righteousness remained the same. This deceiver twisted Matt. 5 in an attempt to made null and void much of the Holy scriptures. For instance;
Matt. 5: 21 Ye have heard that it was said "by them of old time", Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment: 22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.
This deceiver teaches that the "Them of Old Time" Jesus is speaking to here, are "God and Moses", and that Jesus came to bring a different Law than them.
But when a man reads what God Inspired Moses to actually write, we find this:
Lev. 19: 16 Thou shalt not go up and down as a talebearer among thy people: neither shalt thou stand against the blood of thy neighbour: I am the LORD. 17 Thou shalt not hate thy brother in thine heart: thou shalt in any wise rebuke thy neighbour, and not suffer sin upon him. 18 Thou shalt not avenge, "nor bear any grudge" against the children of thy people, but thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself: I am the LORD.
The "Them of old time" taught "some" of God's Law, but omitted the most important parts, at least according to the Jesus "of the bible".
Matt. 23: 23 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye pay tithe of mint and anise and cummin, and have omitted the weightier matters of the law, judgment, mercy, and faith: these ought ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone.
The "Them of Old Time" Jesus is speaking to here are the Pharisees and their rebellious fathers. (Acts 7:51) They held to some of the teaching of God through Moses, but Omitted some of the most important parts. As Jesus tells them, "these ought ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone".
They taught "Thou shall not kill", a Law of God given through Moses, but they omitted the part about how to treat their brother, also a Law of God given through Moses.
When a man goes through the list of practices and doctrines of "Them of Old Time" singled out in Matt. 5, he will find in every case, the Law and Prophets teach what Jesus taught, while the "Them of Old Time", had Omitted the Law of God given through Moses.
33 Again, ye have heard that it hath been said by them of old time, Thou shalt not forswear thyself, but shalt perform unto the Lord thine oaths: 34 But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne: 35 Nor by the earth; for it is his footstool: neither by Jerusalem; for it is the city of the great King.
Deut. 23: 21 When thou shalt vow a vow unto the LORD thy God, thou shalt not slack to pay it: for the LORD thy God will surely require it of thee; and it would be sin in thee. 22 But if thou shalt forbear to vow, it shall be no sin in thee. 23 That which is gone "out of thy lips" thou shalt keep and perform; even a freewill offering, according as thou hast vowed unto the LORD thy God, which thou hast promised with thy mouth.
Matt. 5: 37 But let your communication be, Yea, yea; Nay, nay: for whatsoever is more than these cometh of evil.
Same exact teaching.
So who is the Judaizer in this case? The man, like Jesus, who "Lives by EVERY WORD" that proceeds from the mouth of God? Or the man who transgresses God's commandments by their own tradition of "Omitting" whatever parts of God's instruction they don't approve of?
Until a man comes to terms with the answer to this question, this discussion is simple vain jangling.