The question has to be qualified further and most of the adjunct inquiries asked in Post #105 are irrelevant to the correct answer because the correct answer is based wholly in whole scripture.
My question is irrelevant to the answer?
OK!
Fundamentally, when scripture is the sole source considered, Judaism and Christianity are synonymous or identical.
That would depend on what definition of Judaism you are using, Yes? If Judaism is striving to "Walk even as Jesus Walked", in the Commandments of God, as John Defines, or as Jesus Himself defines, "Living By Every Word of God", or as Paul teaches, "
created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them", then that is the same as the first "Christians", or as you say "Identical" as it was defined in the Scriptures.
The Word "Christianity" is only used in the Bible 2 times.
Acts 26:
28 Then Agrippa said unto Paul, Almost thou persuadest me to be a Christian.
And this after Paul revealed the Heavenly Vision to him'
19 Whereupon, O king Agrippa, I was not disobedient unto the heavenly vision: 20 But shewed first unto them of Damascus, and at Jerusalem, and throughout all the coasts of Judaea, and then to the Gentiles, that they should repent and turn to God, and do works meet for repentance.
So Paul's teaching as to what a "Christian" is, in this exchange, aligned perfectly with the Teaching of the Christ Jesus. Repent, turn to God, "do works" or as Jesus said, "Live By" works that show repentance.
The other time it is used is in 1 Peter 4.
1
Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin; 2 That he no longer should live the rest of his time in the flesh to the lusts of men, but to the will of God.
15 But let none of you suffer as a murderer, or as a thief, or as an evildoer, or as a busybody in other men's matters.
16 Yet if any man suffer as a Christian, let him not be ashamed; but let him glorify God on this behalf.
17 For the time is come that judgment must begin at the house of God: and if it first begin at us, what shall the end be of them that obey not the gospel of God? 18 And if the righteous scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear? 19 Wherefore let them that suffer according to the will of God commit the keeping of their souls to him in well doing, as unto a faithful Creator.
The word Judaism is not used once in Scriptures. But is used a lot by this world's religious men "who come in Christ's Name". Given all the warning concerning false teachers and deceptions and men who transform themselves into Apostles of Christ, I think the question is perfectly relevant. Especially since I have been called a Judaizer by several men, who call Jesus Lord, Lord, on this very forum.
It seems prudent that I understand what they mean when they us it.
The religion that God honors is to help widows and orphans, those in need, and not defile oneself with the world (
James 1:27).
Yes, the Christ Inspired Book of James gives us a lot of helpful instruction.
21 Wherefore lay apart all filthiness and superfluity of naughtiness, and receive with meekness "the engrafted word", which is able "to save your souls". 22 But be ye "doers" of the word, and not hearers only, deceiving your own selves.
23 For if any be a hearer of the word, and not a doer, he is like unto a man beholding his natural face in a glass: 24 For he beholdeth himself, and goeth his way, and straightway forgetteth what manner of man he was.
So James, Paul and Peter all agree with Jesus concerning
whose Word's to "Live by", or whose Word's to be "doers" of, Yes?
Deut. 10:
16 Circumcise therefore the foreskin of your heart, and be no more stiffnecked. 17 For the LORD your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward: 18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment. 19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.
So, is the man who lives by these Word's a Christian? Or a Judaizer? Or are they, as you stated, "synonymous or identical".
As I mentioned in a previous post the first Christians were sectarian Jews. They were followers of the sect that was known as "The Way," or the way of Jesus bar Joseph, the rabbi from Nazareth.
Gen. 18:
18 Seeing that Abraham shall surely become a great and mighty nation, and all the nations of the earth shall be blessed in him?
19 For I know him, that he will command his children and his household after him, and they shall keep "the way of the LORD", to do justice and judgment; that the LORD may bring upon Abraham that which he hath spoken of him.
Jesus Himself said:
John 8:
55 Yet ye have not known him; but I know him: and if I should say, I know him not, I shall be a liar like unto you: but I know him, and keep his saying. 56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.
There is only ONE "Way of the Lord", Yes? Didn't Abraham also walk in it?
Later they became known as "little christs, or Christians but that moniker gained ground only after the gospel had spread from Jerusalem into the surrounding pagan/Gentile lands.
But Abraham would have also been a "little christ" Yes? Was he not a Gentile, born in Gentile lands, surrounded with Gentile religions? But God blessed him and his sons, and destroyed Sodom. Why?
Gen. 26:
5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
These were the "Works" of Abraham, were they not? He wasn't just a hearer of God's Law, but a "Doer". These were also the "Works" of Zacharias, Simeon, Caleb, Anna, Meshak, David and Paul. How can a man say that all these examples didn't "
repent and turn to God, and do works meet for repentance"?
How can a man say that the Spirit of Christ wasn't in all these examples of Faithful men?
The problem is that much of the religion Judaism was just plain wrong.
But my friend, you have still not defined Judaism, and yet you are saying it was wrong? Was it wrong for Zacharias and Elizabeth to repent, and "Yield themselves" to God and become
righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless? Or as Paul called it, "Become servants of God's Righteousness"?
Or are you defining "Judaism" as the manmade doctrines, commandments and traditions of man, created and promoted by the mainstream religious sect of that time, the Pharisees? The false gospel Paul called, "The Jews religion" that Transgressed God's commandments so that they could live by their own traditions, and persecuted the "little christs" throughout the Bible?
It can't be both.
Keep in mind that religion did not begin until Moses. Abraham did not practice religious Judaism.
I hope you will step back a little and consider what you are saying here. You have not yet defined Judaism, other to say that it is identical to "Christianity".
If "Judaism" is the rejection of God's Laws, Judgments and Commandments, as a "way of life", replaced by manmade judgments, manmade high days, manmade religious traditions and images of God in the likeness of man, doesn't this perfectly describe the "works" of the religious sect of the Pharisees and rebellious Jews who fell in the Wilderness?
So then if this is the definition you and others use, when you speak of Judaizers, I would agree that Abraham didn't practice religious Judaism.
Neither did Zacharias, Simeon, Caleb, Shadrack, David, Cornelious, Paul, James and certainly not my Lord, the Jesus, "of the Bible" or any of the examples of Faithful men given us by God in the Holy Scriptures.
Neither did Enoch or Seth. Theological problems arose in Judaism because men misunderstood what God was saying. Judaism, for example, completely misunderstood the priesthood, the Law, the monarchy, the kingdom, the Messiah, and more.
Now we are getting somewhere. Thank you so much for this discussion. But I think you are mistaken here. According to Jesus, Paul, and the entire Law and Prophets, it wasn't that this world's religions didn't "Understand" God's instruction, it is because they "Didn't believe" God's instruction. Eve was convinced "Not to believe" God's Word, it wasn't that she didn't understand God's Word. Sodom knew God, but didn't Glorify Him as God. As Paul said, "
Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. Does our God punish men because they don't understand Him? I think you should reconsider this Philosophy.
Ezek. 20:
18 But I said unto their children in the wilderness, Walk ye not in the statutes of your fathers, neither observe their judgments, nor defile yourselves with their idols: 19 I am the LORD your God; walk in my statutes, and keep my judgments, and do them; 20 And hallow my sabbaths; and they shall be a sign between me and you, that ye may know that I am the LORD your God. (Like Abraham, Zacharias, Simeon, Jesus, Paul)
21 Notwithstanding the children rebelled against me: they walked not in my statutes, neither kept my judgments to do them, which if a man do, he shall even live in them; they polluted my sabbaths: then I said, I would pour out my fury upon them, to accomplish my anger against them in the wilderness.
According to God's Inspired word here, it wasn't that these men didn't "understand" the instruction in righteousness that God gave them, it's that they simply didn't believe in this God.
Jesus didn't say of the Pharisees, "You didn't understand Moses", HE said "You didn't believe Moses".
It's not that the religious sects and businesses of this world don't understand the Commandments, Judgments and Statutes of God, it's that they don't believe God concerning them.
So then, a "Judaizer", would be a religious man who "profess
that they know God; but in works they deny him, being abominable, and disobedient, and unto every good work reprobate".
It would be a man who "Hears the Christ's sayings, call's Him Lord, Lord, but doesn't believe His Sayings enough to actually "DO" them".
It would be a religious
people who "draweth nigh unto God with their mouth, and honoureth God with their lips; but their heart is far from God. But in vain they do worship God, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men.
So according to the Scriptures, if this is the definition of "Judaism", then you were right in your first statement. "Judaism and (Modern) Christianity are synonymous or identical".
I believe this is why Jesus said "Be ye not therefore, like unto them", and again, "come out of her",
that ye be not partakers of her sins, and that ye receive not of her plagues."
I agree with your reference of men not wanting to "Yield themselves" unto God, and their Bodies as instruments of righteousness unto God. Choosing instead to "Yield themselves" unto the philosophies of men promoted by this world's religious sects and businesses. But it seems important to discern what "Judaism" means, as it pertains to Scriptures first.