If you look back to responses in this and the other thread on this..you will see it has been pasted and expounded upon by others. This is really nonsensical.
He that believes and is not water baptised is saved
- Thread starter 360watt
- Start date
If you look back to responses in this and the other thread on this..you will see it has been pasted and expounded upon by others. This is really nonsensical.
Truther
Well-known member
Most others will not post Acts 2:38 and neither can you.
To most, it is like an infectious disease they would like to avoid thinking about.
Outa sight, outa mind.
Fitzpatrick
Active member
Acts 2:38, “And Peter said to them, ‘Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.’” As with any single verse or passage, we discern what it teaches by first filtering it through what we know the Bible teaches on the subject at hand. In the case of baptism and salvation, the Bible is clear that salvation is by grace through faith in Jesus Christ, not by works of any kind, including baptism (Ephesians 2:8-9). So, any interpretation which comes to the conclusion that baptism, or any other act, is necessary for salvation, is a faulty interpretation. For more information, please visit our webpage on "Is salvation by faith alone, or by faith plus works?"
Why, then, do some come to the conclusion that we must be baptized in order to be saved? Often, the discussion of whether or not this passage teaches baptism is required for salvation centers around the Greek word eis that is translated “for” in this passage. Those who hold to the belief that baptism is required for salvation are quick to point to this verse and the fact that it says “be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins,” assuming that the word translated “for” in this verse means “in order to get.” However, in both Greek and English, there are many possible usages of the word “for.”
As an example, when one says “Take two aspirin for your headache,” it is obvious to everybody that it does not mean “take two aspirin in order to get your headache,” but instead to “take two aspirin because you already have a headache.” There are three possible meanings of the word “for” that might fit the context of Acts 2:38: 1--“in order to be, become, get, have, keep, etc.,” 2—“because of, as the result of,” or 3—“with regard to.” Since any one of the three meanings could fit the context of this passage, additional study is required in order to determine which one is correct.
We need to start by looking back to the original language and the meaning of the Greek word eis. This is a common Greek word (it is used 1774 times in the New Testament) that is translated many different ways. Like the English word “for” it can have several different meanings. So, again, we see at least two or three possible meanings of the passage, one that would seem to support that baptism is required for salvation and others that would not. While both the meanings of the Greek word eis are seen in different passages of Scripture, such noted Greek scholars as A.T. Robertson and J.R. Mantey have maintained that the Greek preposition eis in Acts 2:38 should be translated “because of” or “in view of,” and not “in order to,” or “for the purpose of.”
One example of how this preposition is used in other Scriptures is seen in Matthew 12:41 where the word eis communicates the “result” of an action. In this case it is said that the people of Nineveh “repented at the preaching of Jonah” (the word translated “at” is the same Greek word eis). Clearly, the meaning of this passage is that they repented “because of’” or “as the result of” Jonah’s preaching. In the same way, it would be possible that Acts 2:38 is indeed communicating the fact that they were to be baptized “as the result of” or “because” they already had believed and in doing so had already received forgiveness of their sins (John 1:12; John 3:14-18; John 5:24; John 11:25-26; Acts 10:43; Acts 13:39; Acts 16:31; Acts 26:18; Romans 10:9; Ephesians 1:12-14). This interpretation of the passage is also consistent with the message recorded in Peter’s next two sermons to unbelievers where he associates the forgiveness of sins with the act of repentance and faith in Christ without even mentioning baptism (Acts 3:17-26; Acts 4:8-12).
In addition to Acts 2:38, there are three other verses where the Greek word eis is used in conjunction with the word “baptize” or “baptism.” The first of these is Matthew 3:11, “baptize you with water for repentance.” Clearly the Greek word eis cannot mean “in order to get” in this passage. They were not baptized “in order to get repentance,” but were “baptized because they had repented.” The second passage is Romans 6:3 where we have the phrase “baptized into (eis) His death.” This again fits with the meaning “because of” or in "regard to." The third and final passage is 1 Corinthians 10:2 and the phrase “baptized into (eis) Moses in the cloud and in the sea.” Again, eis cannot mean “in order to get” in this passage because the Israelites were not baptized in order to get Moses to be their leader, but because he was their leader and had led them out of Egypt. If one is consistent with the way the preposition eis is used in conjunction with baptism, we must conclude that Acts 2:38 is indeed referring to their being baptized “because” they had received forgiveness of their sins. Some other verses where the Greek preposition eis does not mean “in order to obtain” are Matthew 28:19; 1 Peter 3:21; Acts 19:3; 1 Corinthians 1:15; and 12:13.
The grammatical evidence surrounding this verse and the preposition eis are clear that while both views on this verse are well within the context and the range of possible meanings of the passage, the majority of the evidence is in favor that the best possible definition of the word “for” in this context is either “because of” or “in regard to” and not “in order to get.” Therefore, Acts 2:38, when interpreted correctly, does not teach that baptism is required for salvation.
Besides the precise meaning of the preposition translated “for” in this passage, there is another grammatical aspect of this verse to carefully consider—the change between the second person and third person between the verbs and pronouns in the passage. For example, in Peter’s commands to repent and be baptized the Greek verb translated “repent” is in the second person plural while the verb “be baptized,” is in the third person singular. When we couple this with the fact that the pronoun “your” in the phrase “forgiveness of your sins” is also second person plural, we see an important distinction being made that helps us understand this passage. The result of this change from second person plural to third person singular and back would seem to connect the phrase “forgiveness of your sins” directly with the command to “repent.” Therefore, when you take into account the change in person and plurality, essentially what you have is “You (plural) repent for the forgiveness of your (plural) sins, and let each one (singular) of you be baptized (singular).” Or, to put it in a more distinct way: “You all repent for the forgiveness of all of your sins, and let each one of you be baptized.”
Another error that is made by those who believe Acts 2:38 teaches baptism is required for salvation is what is sometimes called the Negative Inference Fallacy. Simply put, this is the idea that just because a statement is true, we cannot assume all negations (or opposites) of that statement are true. In other words, just because Acts 2:38 says “repent and be baptized….for the forgiveness of sins…and the gift of the Holy Spirit,” does not mean that if one repents and is not baptized, he will not receive forgiveness of sins or the gift of the Holy Spirit.
There is an important difference between a condition of salvation and a requirement for salvation. The Bible is clear that belief is both a condition and a requirement, but the same cannot be said for baptism. The Bible does not say that if a man is not baptized then he will not be saved. One can add any number of conditions to faith (which is required for salvation), and the person can still be saved. For example if a person believes, is baptized, goes to church, and gives to the poor he will be saved. Where the error in thinking occurs is if one assumes all these other conditions, “baptism, going to church, giving to the poor,” are required for one to be saved. While they might be the evidence of salvation, they are not a requirement for salvation. (For a more thorough explanation of this logical fallacy, please see the Question: Does Mark 16:16 teach that baptism is required for salvation?).
The fact that baptism is not required to receive forgiveness and the gift of the Holy Spirit should also be evident by simply reading a little farther in the book of Acts. In Acts 10:43, Peter tells Cornelius that “through His name everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins” (please note that nothing at this point has been mentioned about being baptized, yet Peter connects believing in Christ with the act of receiving forgiveness for sins). The next thing that happens is, having believed Peter’s message about Christ, the “Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message” (Acts 10:44). It is only after they had believed, and therefore received forgiveness of their sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit, that Cornelius and his household were baptized (Acts 10:47-48). The context and the passage are very clear; Cornelius and his household received both forgiveness of sins and the Holy Spirit before they were ever baptized. In fact, the reason Peter allowed them to be baptized was that they showed evidence of receiving the Holy Spirit “just as Peter and the Jewish believers” had.
In conclusion, Acts 2:38 does not teach that baptism is required for salvation. While baptism is important as the sign that one has been justified by faith and as the public declaration of one’s faith in Christ and membership in a local body of believers, it is not the means of remission or forgiveness of sins. The Bible is very clear that we are saved by grace alone through faith alone in Christ alone (John 1:12; John 3:16; Acts 16:31; Romans 3:21-30; Romans 4:5; Romans 10:9-10; Ephesians 2:8-10; Philippians 3:9; Galatians 2:16).
Got?
Why, then, do some come to the conclusion that we must be baptized in order to be saved? Often, the discussion of whether or not this passage teaches baptism is required for salvation centers around the Greek word eis that is translated “for” in this passage. Those who hold to the belief that baptism is required for salvation are quick to point to this verse and the fact that it says “be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins,” assuming that the word translated “for” in this verse means “in order to get.” However, in both Greek and English, there are many possible usages of the word “for.”
As an example, when one says “Take two aspirin for your headache,” it is obvious to everybody that it does not mean “take two aspirin in order to get your headache,” but instead to “take two aspirin because you already have a headache.” There are three possible meanings of the word “for” that might fit the context of Acts 2:38: 1--“in order to be, become, get, have, keep, etc.,” 2—“because of, as the result of,” or 3—“with regard to.” Since any one of the three meanings could fit the context of this passage, additional study is required in order to determine which one is correct.
We need to start by looking back to the original language and the meaning of the Greek word eis. This is a common Greek word (it is used 1774 times in the New Testament) that is translated many different ways. Like the English word “for” it can have several different meanings. So, again, we see at least two or three possible meanings of the passage, one that would seem to support that baptism is required for salvation and others that would not. While both the meanings of the Greek word eis are seen in different passages of Scripture, such noted Greek scholars as A.T. Robertson and J.R. Mantey have maintained that the Greek preposition eis in Acts 2:38 should be translated “because of” or “in view of,” and not “in order to,” or “for the purpose of.”
One example of how this preposition is used in other Scriptures is seen in Matthew 12:41 where the word eis communicates the “result” of an action. In this case it is said that the people of Nineveh “repented at the preaching of Jonah” (the word translated “at” is the same Greek word eis). Clearly, the meaning of this passage is that they repented “because of’” or “as the result of” Jonah’s preaching. In the same way, it would be possible that Acts 2:38 is indeed communicating the fact that they were to be baptized “as the result of” or “because” they already had believed and in doing so had already received forgiveness of their sins (John 1:12; John 3:14-18; John 5:24; John 11:25-26; Acts 10:43; Acts 13:39; Acts 16:31; Acts 26:18; Romans 10:9; Ephesians 1:12-14). This interpretation of the passage is also consistent with the message recorded in Peter’s next two sermons to unbelievers where he associates the forgiveness of sins with the act of repentance and faith in Christ without even mentioning baptism (Acts 3:17-26; Acts 4:8-12).
In addition to Acts 2:38, there are three other verses where the Greek word eis is used in conjunction with the word “baptize” or “baptism.” The first of these is Matthew 3:11, “baptize you with water for repentance.” Clearly the Greek word eis cannot mean “in order to get” in this passage. They were not baptized “in order to get repentance,” but were “baptized because they had repented.” The second passage is Romans 6:3 where we have the phrase “baptized into (eis) His death.” This again fits with the meaning “because of” or in "regard to." The third and final passage is 1 Corinthians 10:2 and the phrase “baptized into (eis) Moses in the cloud and in the sea.” Again, eis cannot mean “in order to get” in this passage because the Israelites were not baptized in order to get Moses to be their leader, but because he was their leader and had led them out of Egypt. If one is consistent with the way the preposition eis is used in conjunction with baptism, we must conclude that Acts 2:38 is indeed referring to their being baptized “because” they had received forgiveness of their sins. Some other verses where the Greek preposition eis does not mean “in order to obtain” are Matthew 28:19; 1 Peter 3:21; Acts 19:3; 1 Corinthians 1:15; and 12:13.
The grammatical evidence surrounding this verse and the preposition eis are clear that while both views on this verse are well within the context and the range of possible meanings of the passage, the majority of the evidence is in favor that the best possible definition of the word “for” in this context is either “because of” or “in regard to” and not “in order to get.” Therefore, Acts 2:38, when interpreted correctly, does not teach that baptism is required for salvation.
Besides the precise meaning of the preposition translated “for” in this passage, there is another grammatical aspect of this verse to carefully consider—the change between the second person and third person between the verbs and pronouns in the passage. For example, in Peter’s commands to repent and be baptized the Greek verb translated “repent” is in the second person plural while the verb “be baptized,” is in the third person singular. When we couple this with the fact that the pronoun “your” in the phrase “forgiveness of your sins” is also second person plural, we see an important distinction being made that helps us understand this passage. The result of this change from second person plural to third person singular and back would seem to connect the phrase “forgiveness of your sins” directly with the command to “repent.” Therefore, when you take into account the change in person and plurality, essentially what you have is “You (plural) repent for the forgiveness of your (plural) sins, and let each one (singular) of you be baptized (singular).” Or, to put it in a more distinct way: “You all repent for the forgiveness of all of your sins, and let each one of you be baptized.”
Another error that is made by those who believe Acts 2:38 teaches baptism is required for salvation is what is sometimes called the Negative Inference Fallacy. Simply put, this is the idea that just because a statement is true, we cannot assume all negations (or opposites) of that statement are true. In other words, just because Acts 2:38 says “repent and be baptized….for the forgiveness of sins…and the gift of the Holy Spirit,” does not mean that if one repents and is not baptized, he will not receive forgiveness of sins or the gift of the Holy Spirit.
There is an important difference between a condition of salvation and a requirement for salvation. The Bible is clear that belief is both a condition and a requirement, but the same cannot be said for baptism. The Bible does not say that if a man is not baptized then he will not be saved. One can add any number of conditions to faith (which is required for salvation), and the person can still be saved. For example if a person believes, is baptized, goes to church, and gives to the poor he will be saved. Where the error in thinking occurs is if one assumes all these other conditions, “baptism, going to church, giving to the poor,” are required for one to be saved. While they might be the evidence of salvation, they are not a requirement for salvation. (For a more thorough explanation of this logical fallacy, please see the Question: Does Mark 16:16 teach that baptism is required for salvation?).
The fact that baptism is not required to receive forgiveness and the gift of the Holy Spirit should also be evident by simply reading a little farther in the book of Acts. In Acts 10:43, Peter tells Cornelius that “through His name everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins” (please note that nothing at this point has been mentioned about being baptized, yet Peter connects believing in Christ with the act of receiving forgiveness for sins). The next thing that happens is, having believed Peter’s message about Christ, the “Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message” (Acts 10:44). It is only after they had believed, and therefore received forgiveness of their sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit, that Cornelius and his household were baptized (Acts 10:47-48). The context and the passage are very clear; Cornelius and his household received both forgiveness of sins and the Holy Spirit before they were ever baptized. In fact, the reason Peter allowed them to be baptized was that they showed evidence of receiving the Holy Spirit “just as Peter and the Jewish believers” had.
In conclusion, Acts 2:38 does not teach that baptism is required for salvation. While baptism is important as the sign that one has been justified by faith and as the public declaration of one’s faith in Christ and membership in a local body of believers, it is not the means of remission or forgiveness of sins. The Bible is very clear that we are saved by grace alone through faith alone in Christ alone (John 1:12; John 3:16; Acts 16:31; Romans 3:21-30; Romans 4:5; Romans 10:9-10; Ephesians 2:8-10; Philippians 3:9; Galatians 2:16).
Got?
Truther
Well-known member
I asked you to post the verse not a 12 paragraph explanation of what it does not say. I do appreciate you posting the verse though. You are a brave soul.
Eleazar
Member
In Acts 2:38 Peter is commanding those who repent to be baptized in identification with the forgiveness of sins. Their baptism was the badge that identified or labeled them as those who were forgiven. Just as John’s baptism identified its subjects as repenters, Christian baptism identifies its subjects as forgiven people.
In other words, water baptism in Acts 2:38 functions as neither a sufficient nor a necessary condition of salvation, but as a declaration that one has been saved. This verse cannot be used to prove baptismal regeneration.
In other words, water baptism in Acts 2:38 functions as neither a sufficient nor a necessary condition of salvation, but as a declaration that one has been saved. This verse cannot be used to prove baptismal regeneration.
Fitzpatrick
Active member
Baptism is not what saves. It is not part of salvation. It is something someone does who is already saved.
Acts 2:38 is one of the more controversial verses in the Bible regarding baptism and whether or not it is the requirement for salvation. Some use this verse to say that one must be baptized in order to be saved. But when you look at the verse, and others, you will see that it does not teach baptismal regeneration, that baptism saves, or that baptism is necessary for salvation. The verse reads:
“Peter said to them, ‘Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit,'” (Acts 2:38).
First of all, rarely is doctrine ever made from a single verse. We need to look at all of what God’s words says about a subject in order to accurately understand what it teaches. I will briefly tackle this verse in the following manner:
- Examination of the verse’s syntax, grammar, and structure.
- Examine other verses dealing with the forgiveness of sins.
- Examine the verse in its covenant context.
Grammar and structure of Acts 2:38
In Acts 2:38 the main verb is metanoesate (change mind), the aorist direct imperative (a command) of metanoeo which means to repent (change mind). This refers to the initial repentance of the sinner unto salvation. The verb translated “be baptized” is in the indirect passive imperative (a command to receive; hence, passive voice in Greek1) of baptizo, which does not give it the same direct command implied in “repent.” The preposition “for” in the phrase “for the remission of sins” in Greek is “eis,” unto or into, and it is in the accusative case (direct object). It can mean “for the purpose of identifying you with the remission of sins.” It is the same preposition we find in 1 Cor. 10:2 in the phrase “and were baptized unto Moses.” Note that both contexts are dealing with baptism and identification. In 1 Cor. 10:2 the people were baptized or spiritually identifying themselves with the purposes and vision of Moses.Repentance, therefore, is presented as identifying an individual with the remission of his sins even as baptism following repentance provides an external identification visible to others. Repentance is something that concerns an individual and God while baptism involves others. That is why baptistheto (let be immersed) is in the passive voice indicating that one does not baptize himself but is baptized by another usually in the presence of others. Repentance, however, is an act taking place within a person’s heart as the Holy Spirit moves in the sinner.
But, all this Greek stuff may be confusing. Let me break it down. All people are commanded to repent of their sins. This is what believers have already done by becoming Christians. Baptism, then, is the outward identification with being a Christian for those who have already repented. Also, as the Israelites were “baptized into Moses” (1 Cor. 10:2), so too, Christians are baptized into Jesus. That is, they are identifying themselves, publicly, with Christ. Likewise, in Rom. 6:1-5 where baptism is related to death, burial, and resurrection, it is again an identification with Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. That is why it is said of Christians that we have died to sin (Rom. 6:2, 11; Gal. 2:19-20; Col. 2:20; Col. 3:3; 1 Pet. 2:24).
This verse is not demonstrating that baptism is essential for salvation, but that baptism is the thing which we receive in order to publicly identify ourselves completely and totally with Christ as a manifestation of the inward work God has done within us.
Other verses dealing with salvation
Justification is the work of God where the righteousness of Jesus is reckoned to the sinner; so the sinner is declared, by God, as being righteous under the Law (Rom. 4:3; 5:1,9; Gal. 2:16; 3:11). This righteousness is not earned or retained by any effort of the saved. Justification is an instantaneous occurrence with the result being eternal life. It is based completely and solely upon Jesus’ sacrifice on the cross (1 Pet. 2:24) and is received by faith alone (Rom. 4:5; 5:1; Eph. 2:8-9). No works are necessary whatsoever to obtain justification. Otherwise, it is not a gift (Rom. 6:23). Therefore, we are justified by faith (Rom. 5:1).Nowhere in the Bible does it state that we are justified by grace and baptism or faith and baptism or faith and anything else. On the contrary, baptism is excluded from the gospel message. Paul said that he came to preach the gospel–not to baptize: “I am thankful that I did not baptize any of you except Crispus and Gaius, so no one can say that you were baptized into my name. (Yes, I also baptized the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I don’t remember if I baptized anyone else). For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel…” (1 Cor. 1:14-17).
Likewise, Paul told us exactly what the gospel that saves is; he said in 1 Cor. 15:1-4, “Now I make known to you, brethren, the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received, in which also you stand, 2 by which also you are saved, if you hold fast the word which I preached to you, unless you believed in vain. 3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4 and that He was buried, and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures.” Note what Paul states in the gospel and that he did not include baptism in the definition of the gospel.
So, we must ask if baptism is necessary for salvation, then why did Paul downplay it and even exclude it from the description of what is required for salvation? It is because baptism isn’t necessary for salvation.
Further proof that baptism is not a requirement of salvation can be found in Acts 10:44-46. Peter was preaching the gospel, people became saved, and then they were baptized. Acts 10:44-48 says,
“While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit came on all who heard the message. The circumcised believers who had come with Peter were astonished that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out even on the Gentiles. For they heard them speaking in tongues and praising God. Then Peter said, Can anyone keep these people from being baptized with water? They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have.’ So he ordered that they be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked Peter to stay with them for a few days.” (NIV).
These people were saved. The gift of the Holy Spirit was on the Gentiles, and they were speaking in tongues. This is significant because tongues is a gift given to believers, see 1 Cor. 14:1-5. Also, unbelievers don’t praise God. They can’t because praise to the true God is a deep spiritual matter that is foreign to the unsaved (1 Cor. 2:14). Therefore, the ones in Acts 10:44-46 who are speaking in tongues and praising God are definitely saved, and they are saved before they are baptized. This isn’t an exception. It is a reality. This proves that baptism is not necessary for salvation and that Acts 2:38 is not teaching it is necessary either. But, if it isn’t saying that, then why is baptism mentioned here?
Biblical Covenant context
A covenant is a pact or agreement between two or more parties. Very often, covenants have visible signs to represent them. The elements of bread and wine used in communion are good examples of this. Circumcision was both a covenant sign and the initiatory rite into the Abrahamic covenant (Gen. 17:10). But this covenant sign did not save anyone.God said to Abraham, “I will establish my covenant as an everlasting covenant between me and you and your descendants after you for the generations to come, to be your God and the God of your descendants after you.” (Gen. 17:7, NIV). God later instructed Abraham to circumcise not only every adult male but also eight-day-old male infants as a sign of the covenant (Gen. 17:9-13). If the children were not circumcised, they were not considered to be under the promissory Abrahamic covenant. This is why Moses’ wife circumcised her son and threw the foreskin at Moses’ feet after Moses failed to circumcise him (Exo. 4:24-25). She knew the importance of the covenant between God and her children. At the same time, we must understand that circumcision did not guarantee salvation to those who received it. It was a rite meant only for the people of God, who were born into the family of God (who were then the Jews). It was an outward sign of the covenant promise. To reject it was to reject the covenant, but accepting it did not guarantee salvation.
Another theological debate at risk here
There is debate within Christianity on the nature of baptism and to whom it may be administered. I am not herein trying to convince anyone of the proper objects of baptism whether it be infant baptism or adult-only baptism. I only present the following information as proof that baptism is a covenant sign and not essential to salvation.In the New Testament, circumcision is mentioned many times. But with respect to baptism, it is specifically mentioned in Col. 2:11-12: “In him you were also circumcised, in the putting off of the sinful nature, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ, having been buried with him in baptism and raised with him through your faith in the power of God, who raised him from the dead.” (NIV). In these verses, baptism and circumcision are related. The extent of that relationship is still being debated. Nevertheless, Paul also says in Rom. 2:29, “But he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter; and his praise is not from men, but from God.” As you can see, for the Christian, circumcision is of the heart. And because it is, we Christians are now included in the Abrahamic covenant where before, we, the Gentiles, were not. “Remember that you were at that time separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.” (Eph. 2:12, NASB).
In Gal. 3:8-9, Paul calls the promise of the Abrahamic covenant the gospel. He says, “And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, ‘All the nations shall be blessed in you, 9 So then those who are of faith are blessed with Abraham, the believer.'” So, Paul calls the Abrahamic covenant the gospel. The sign of this Abrahamic covenant was circumcision.
Here is the catch. Since the Abrahamic covenant is still valid (we are justified by faith–Gal. 3:8), then is there a covenant sign for us today? I think the answer is a resounding yes. I believe that baptism replaces the Old Testament covenant sign of circumcision because 1) there was a New Covenant in the communion supper (Luke 22:20), and 2) in circumcision there was the shedding of blood, but in baptism, no blood is shed. The covenant sign has changed now that the Law has been fulfilled in Christ.
If you understand that baptism is a covenant sign, then you can see that it is a representation of the reality of Christ circumcising our hearts (Rom. 2:29; Col. 2:11-12). It is our outward proclamation of the inward spiritual blessing of regeneration–of “heart-circumcision.” It comes after faith which is a gift of God (Eph. 2:8) and the work of God (John 6:28). Again, baptism is the covenant sign of our covenant with God.
Acts 2:39 and “The Promise”
This would explain why Peter in verse 39 of Acts 2 says, “For the promise is for you and your children, and for all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God shall call to Himself.” What promise is Peter speaking of when he says “the promise?” Notice that he does not say “this promise” but “the promise.” If Peter was referring to baptism as the promise, he would have said “this promise.” Instead, he used a phrase “the promise.” This is significant.The phrase “the promise” occurs in 26 Bible verses in the New Testament. It is used in reference to several different topics.
- The Holy Spirit, (Luke 24:49; Acts 2:33; Gal. 3:14).
- God’s promise to Abraham to multiply his descendants in Egypt–physical as well as spiritual (Acts 7:17; Heb. 6:13, 15, 17).
- The promise of the Messiah, (Acts 13:32; Acts 26:6-7; Rom. 4:13, 14, 16; Gal. 3:17, 19, 22; Eph. 3:6; 2 Tim. 1:1).
- The promise of eternal redemption (Heb. 9:15; 1 John 2:25).
- The promise that Sarah would have a child (Rom. 4:20; Gal. 4:23).
- The promise that through Isaac the world would be blessed. (Rom. 9:8).
- The promise of Jesus’ return (2 Pet. 3:4).
- The promise to kill Paul by Paul’s adversaries (Acts 22:21).
- “And it shall be in the last days, God says, that I will pour forth of My Spirit upon all mankind; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams, Even upon My bondslaves, both men and women, I will in those days pour forth of My Spirit.” (Acts 2:17-18).
- See also, “For I will pour out water on the thirsty land, and streams on the dry ground; I will pour out My Spirit on your offspring, And My blessing on your descendants.” (Isaiah 44:3).
Consider this proof, from Peter, that people are saved before baptism:
“While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message. 45And all the circumcised believers who had come with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out upon the Gentiles also. 46For they were hearing them speaking with tongues and exalting God. Then Peter answered, 47“Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?” 48And he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to stay on for a few days.” (Acts 10:44-48).
Notice that Peter had been preaching the gospel, and the Holy Spirit fell upon the people. In verse 45 we see that “the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out upon the Gentiles also.” These people were saved. The gift of the Holy Spirit was on the Gentiles, and they were speaking in tongues. This is significant because tongues are a gift given to believers, see 1 Cor. 14:1-5. Also, unbelievers don’t praise God. They can’t because praise to the true God is a deep spiritual matter that is foreign to the unsaved (1 Cor. 2:14). Therefore, the ones in Acts 10:44-48 who are speaking in tongues and praising God are definitely saved, and they are saved before they are baptized. This simply isn’t an exception. It is a reality.
Conclusion
Acts 2:38 so closely ties repentance and baptism because it is contextually covenantal language and covenant concept. It is not stating that you must be baptized in order to be saved. It is saying that baptism is the complete and total covenantal identification with Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. It is not the covenant representation (baptism) of what Christ did that saves us but the reality of His sacrifice which we receive by faith (Rom. 5:1; Gal. 3:8). That is why we can see a group of people in Acts 10:44-48 who are saved before they are baptized.Matt Slick
Eleazar
Member
That's a good one, it explains it quite clearly. Thanks for sharing.Baptism is not what saves. It is not part of salvation. It is something someone does who is already saved.
Acts 2:38 is one of the more controversial verses in the Bible regarding baptism and whether or not it is the requirement for salvation. Some use this verse to say that one must be baptized in order to be saved. But when you look at the verse, and others, you will see that it does not teach baptismal regeneration, that baptism saves, or that baptism is necessary for salvation. The verse reads:
“Peter said to them, ‘Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit,'” (Acts 2:38).
First of all, rarely is doctrine ever made from a single verse. We need to look at all of what God’s words says about a subject in order to accurately understand what it teaches. I will briefly tackle this verse in the following manner:
- Examination of the verse’s syntax, grammar, and structure.
- Examine other verses dealing with the forgiveness of sins.
- Examine the verse in its covenant context.
Grammar and structure of Acts 2:38
In Acts 2:38 the main verb is metanoesate (change mind), the aorist direct imperative (a command) of metanoeo which means to repent (change mind). This refers to the initial repentance of the sinner unto salvation. The verb translated “be baptized” is in the indirect passive imperative (a command to receive; hence, passive voice in Greek1) of baptizo, which does not give it the same direct command implied in “repent.” The preposition “for” in the phrase “for the remission of sins” in Greek is “eis,” unto or into, and it is in the accusative case (direct object). It can mean “for the purpose of identifying you with the remission of sins.” It is the same preposition we find in 1 Cor. 10:2 in the phrase “and were baptized unto Moses.” Note that both contexts are dealing with baptism and identification. In 1 Cor. 10:2 the people were baptized or spiritually identifying themselves with the purposes and vision of Moses.
Repentance, therefore, is presented as identifying an individual with the remission of his sins even as baptism following repentance provides an external identification visible to others. Repentance is something that concerns an individual and God while baptism involves others. That is why baptistheto (let be immersed) is in the passive voice indicating that one does not baptize himself but is baptized by another usually in the presence of others. Repentance, however, is an act taking place within a person’s heart as the Holy Spirit moves in the sinner.
But, all this Greek stuff may be confusing. Let me break it down. All people are commanded to repent of their sins. This is what believers have already done by becoming Christians. Baptism, then, is the outward identification with being a Christian for those who have already repented. Also, as the Israelites were “baptized into Moses” (1 Cor. 10:2), so too, Christians are baptized into Jesus. That is, they are identifying themselves, publicly, with Christ. Likewise, in Rom. 6:1-5 where baptism is related to death, burial, and resurrection, it is again an identification with Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. That is why it is said of Christians that we have died to sin (Rom. 6:2, 11; Gal. 2:19-20; Col. 2:20; Col. 3:3; 1 Pet. 2:24).
This verse is not demonstrating that baptism is essential for salvation, but that baptism is the thing which we receive in order to publicly identify ourselves completely and totally with Christ as a manifestation of the inward work God has done within us.
Other verses dealing with salvation
Justification is the work of God where the righteousness of Jesus is reckoned to the sinner; so the sinner is declared, by God, as being righteous under the Law (Rom. 4:3; 5:1,9; Gal. 2:16; 3:11). This righteousness is not earned or retained by any effort of the saved. Justification is an instantaneous occurrence with the result being eternal life. It is based completely and solely upon Jesus’ sacrifice on the cross (1 Pet. 2:24) and is received by faith alone (Rom. 4:5; 5:1; Eph. 2:8-9). No works are necessary whatsoever to obtain justification. Otherwise, it is not a gift (Rom. 6:23). Therefore, we are justified by faith (Rom. 5:1).
Nowhere in the Bible does it state that we are justified by grace and baptism or faith and baptism or faith and anything else. On the contrary, baptism is excluded from the gospel message. Paul said that he came to preach the gospel–not to baptize: “I am thankful that I did not baptize any of you except Crispus and Gaius, so no one can say that you were baptized into my name. (Yes, I also baptized the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I don’t remember if I baptized anyone else). For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel…” (1 Cor. 1:14-17).
Likewise, Paul told us exactly what the gospel that saves is; he said in 1 Cor. 15:1-4, “Now I make known to you, brethren, the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received, in which also you stand, 2 by which also you are saved, if you hold fast the word which I preached to you, unless you believed in vain. 3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4 and that He was buried, and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures.” Note what Paul states in the gospel and that he did not include baptism in the definition of the gospel.
So, we must ask if baptism is necessary for salvation, then why did Paul downplay it and even exclude it from the description of what is required for salvation? It is because baptism isn’t necessary for salvation.
Further proof that baptism is not a requirement of salvation can be found in Acts 10:44-46. Peter was preaching the gospel, people became saved, and then they were baptized. Acts 10:44-48 says,
“While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit came on all who heard the message. The circumcised believers who had come with Peter were astonished that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out even on the Gentiles. For they heard them speaking in tongues and praising God. Then Peter said, Can anyone keep these people from being baptized with water? They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have.’ So he ordered that they be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked Peter to stay with them for a few days.” (NIV).
These people were saved. The gift of the Holy Spirit was on the Gentiles, and they were speaking in tongues. This is significant because tongues is a gift given to believers, see 1 Cor. 14:1-5. Also, unbelievers don’t praise God. They can’t because praise to the true God is a deep spiritual matter that is foreign to the unsaved (1 Cor. 2:14). Therefore, the ones in Acts 10:44-46 who are speaking in tongues and praising God are definitely saved, and they are saved before they are baptized. This isn’t an exception. It is a reality. This proves that baptism is not necessary for salvation and that Acts 2:38 is not teaching it is necessary either. But, if it isn’t saying that, then why is baptism mentioned here?
Biblical Covenant context
A covenant is a pact or agreement between two or more parties. Very often, covenants have visible signs to represent them. The elements of bread and wine used in communion are good examples of this. Circumcision was both a covenant sign and the initiatory rite into the Abrahamic covenant (Gen. 17:10). But this covenant sign did not save anyone.
God said to Abraham, “I will establish my covenant as an everlasting covenant between me and you and your descendants after you for the generations to come, to be your God and the God of your descendants after you.” (Gen. 17:7, NIV). God later instructed Abraham to circumcise not only every adult male but also eight-day-old male infants as a sign of the covenant (Gen. 17:9-13). If the children were not circumcised, they were not considered to be under the promissory Abrahamic covenant. This is why Moses’ wife circumcised her son and threw the foreskin at Moses’ feet after Moses failed to circumcise him (Exo. 4:24-25). She knew the importance of the covenant between God and her children. At the same time, we must understand that circumcision did not guarantee salvation to those who received it. It was a rite meant only for the people of God, who were born into the family of God (who were then the Jews). It was an outward sign of the covenant promise. To reject it was to reject the covenant, but accepting it did not guarantee salvation.
Another theological debate at risk here
There is debate within Christianity on the nature of baptism and to whom it may be administered. I am not herein trying to convince anyone of the proper objects of baptism whether it be infant baptism or adult-only baptism. I only present the following information as proof that baptism is a covenant sign and not essential to salvation.
In the New Testament, circumcision is mentioned many times. But with respect to baptism, it is specifically mentioned in Col. 2:11-12: “In him you were also circumcised, in the putting off of the sinful nature, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ, having been buried with him in baptism and raised with him through your faith in the power of God, who raised him from the dead.” (NIV). In these verses, baptism and circumcision are related. The extent of that relationship is still being debated. Nevertheless, Paul also says in Rom. 2:29, “But he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter; and his praise is not from men, but from God.” As you can see, for the Christian, circumcision is of the heart. And because it is, we Christians are now included in the Abrahamic covenant where before, we, the Gentiles, were not. “Remember that you were at that time separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.” (Eph. 2:12, NASB).
In Gal. 3:8-9, Paul calls the promise of the Abrahamic covenant the gospel. He says, “And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, ‘All the nations shall be blessed in you, 9 So then those who are of faith are blessed with Abraham, the believer.'” So, Paul calls the Abrahamic covenant the gospel. The sign of this Abrahamic covenant was circumcision.
Here is the catch. Since the Abrahamic covenant is still valid (we are justified by faith–Gal. 3:8), then is there a covenant sign for us today? I think the answer is a resounding yes. I believe that baptism replaces the Old Testament covenant sign of circumcision because 1) there was a New Covenant in the communion supper (Luke 22:20), and 2) in circumcision there was the shedding of blood, but in baptism, no blood is shed. The covenant sign has changed now that the Law has been fulfilled in Christ.
If you understand that baptism is a covenant sign, then you can see that it is a representation of the reality of Christ circumcising our hearts (Rom. 2:29; Col. 2:11-12). It is our outward proclamation of the inward spiritual blessing of regeneration–of “heart-circumcision.” It comes after faith which is a gift of God (Eph. 2:8) and the work of God (John 6:28). Again, baptism is the covenant sign of our covenant with God.
Acts 2:39 and “The Promise”
This would explain why Peter in verse 39 of Acts 2 says, “For the promise is for you and your children, and for all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God shall call to Himself.” What promise is Peter speaking of when he says “the promise?” Notice that he does not say “this promise” but “the promise.” If Peter was referring to baptism as the promise, he would have said “this promise.” Instead, he used a phrase “the promise.” This is significant.
The phrase “the promise” occurs in 26 Bible verses in the New Testament. It is used in reference to several different topics.
But we are most interested in its context in Acts 2, which begins with the outpouring of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:1-13). Peter then preaches a sermon and quotes many OT scriptures (Acts 2:14-35). In verse 2:22 Peter specifically says, “Men of Israel, listen to these words . . . “ Peter is speaking to the Jews. It was to the Jews that “the promise” of the outpouring of the Spirit was given. Peter is speaking the covenant language of God as He quotes the OT. Since Peter quotes Joel 2:28-32 in Acts 2:17-18, we can easily see what Peter is talking about when speaking of “the promise” in Acts 2:39.
- The Holy Spirit, (Luke 24:49; Acts 2:33; Gal. 3:14).
- God’s promise to Abraham to multiply his descendants in Egypt–physical as well as spiritual (Acts 7:17; Heb. 6:13, 15, 17).
- The promise of the Messiah, (Acts 13:32; Acts 26:6-7; Rom. 4:13, 14, 16; Gal. 3:17, 19, 22; Eph. 3:6; 2 Tim. 1:1).
- The promise of eternal redemption (Heb. 9:15; 1 John 2:25).
- The promise that Sarah would have a child (Rom. 4:20; Gal. 4:23).
- The promise that through Isaac the world would be blessed. (Rom. 9:8).
- The promise of Jesus’ return (2 Pet. 3:4).
- The promise to kill Paul by Paul’s adversaries (Acts 22:21).
Peter states in Acts 2:38, “Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.” Peter is clearly speaking of the promise of God to grant the Holy Spirit in a new and better way; but is he saying that people become saved by baptism in water, or that baptism is part of salvation? Not at all. Peter is simply speaking covenantally about the covenant sign. Baptism!
- “And it shall be in the last days, God says, that I will pour forth of My Spirit upon all mankind; and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams, Even upon My bondslaves, both men and women, I will in those days pour forth of My Spirit.” (Acts 2:17-18).
- See also, “For I will pour out water on the thirsty land, and streams on the dry ground; I will pour out My Spirit on your offspring, And My blessing on your descendants.” (Isaiah 44:3).
Consider this proof, from Peter, that people are saved before baptism:
“While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message. 45And all the circumcised believers who had come with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out upon the Gentiles also. 46For they were hearing them speaking with tongues and exalting God. Then Peter answered, 47“Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?” 48And he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to stay on for a few days.” (Acts 10:44-48).
Notice that Peter had been preaching the gospel, and the Holy Spirit fell upon the people. In verse 45 we see that “the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out upon the Gentiles also.” These people were saved. The gift of the Holy Spirit was on the Gentiles, and they were speaking in tongues. This is significant because tongues are a gift given to believers, see 1 Cor. 14:1-5. Also, unbelievers don’t praise God. They can’t because praise to the true God is a deep spiritual matter that is foreign to the unsaved (1 Cor. 2:14). Therefore, the ones in Acts 10:44-48 who are speaking in tongues and praising God are definitely saved, and they are saved before they are baptized. This simply isn’t an exception. It is a reality.
Conclusion
Acts 2:38 so closely ties repentance and baptism because it is contextually covenantal language and covenant concept. It is not stating that you must be baptized in order to be saved. It is saying that baptism is the complete and total covenantal identification with Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. It is not the covenant representation (baptism) of what Christ did that saves us but the reality of His sacrifice which we receive by faith (Rom. 5:1; Gal. 3:8). That is why we can see a group of people in Acts 10:44-48 who are saved before they are baptized.
Matt Slick
Doug Brents
Well-known member
Not according to 1 Pet 3:21, Col 2:11-14, Rom 6:1-7, John 3:5, Gal 3:26-27 and others. Baptism is the point at which we go from being lost to being saved.
Eleazar
Member
“For you know that it was not with perishable things such as silver or gold that you were redeemed…but with the precious blood of Christ, a lamb without blemish or defect.” The Apostle Peter to the early Christians 1 Peter 1:18-19.
He, and all the other Apostles, believed that we are redeemed, cleansed, forgiven, in the blood of Jesus Christ not by Baptism in water.
Samson
Member
Water baptism is a ceremony that commemorates our becoming Christians by our faith in Jesus
Doug Brents
Well-known member
Of course it is by the eternal blood of Christ that we are saved, not by physical water, that is what Peter tells us in 1 Pet 3:21. But it is the faith of passing through the water that brings the cleansing power of His blood to us, that invites the Holy Spirit to cut our sins from us (Col 2:11-14), in which we die to sin and are resurrected united to Christ (Rom 6:1-7).
Samson
Member
We're all baptized into the holy spirit the moment we get saved. Water baptism is a completely different thing.
Doug Brents
Well-known member
You have it backwards. We are saved the moment we receive the Holy Spirit. And the Holy Spirit removes our sin and enters into our heart when we are baptized in water (see 1 Pet 3:21, Col 2:11-14, Rom 6:1-7, John 3:5, Gal 3:26-27, Eph 5:25-27, Acts 22:16, and many others.
Richard
Active member
Correct, There is a difference between Spirit baptism and water baptism. They are two separate events.
For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body—whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free—and have all been made to drink into one Spirit. 1 Corinthians 12:13
It’s the Holy Spirit that does the work of Spirit Baptism. As one of the three person’s of the trinity, the Holy Spirit has the authority and ability to bring the believer to life at the moment of their salvation.
For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
When one believes in Jesus for everlasting life he experiences the Spirit baptism, and by this act he also has put on Christ.
Water baptism is exactly what it sounds like. The word, in Greek, means to immerse in water. Before Christianity, baptism was an act of conversion used for Gentiles converting to Judaism, it means initiating people to the faith. It's a religious ceremony.
A public expression of what has already happened privately. Water baptism is a visual representation of the invisible Spirit baptism. All those who are saved have experienced Spirit baptism.
Samson
Member
Actually it's you that has a backwards. You are promoting “baptismal regeneration”–the view that teaches that one is saved (regenerated) though water baptism. It's a false teaching. It's a form of works salvation something that man has to do besides have faith in order to be saved.
Even Christ Himself—in perhaps His most famous quote—denied the need for works to accomplish salvation: “For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life” (John 3:16). In fact, the need for Salvation by water baptism would contradict the entirety of Christ’s ministry.
Doug Brents
Well-known member
Samson, faith DEMANDS action. If there is no action then it is not really faith. James 2:24 says that we are justified by our actions, not by faith only. This is actually the ONLY place in all of Scripture where the phrase or concept of "faith only" appears, and it is "NOT faith only" by which we are saved. Then in James 2:26 he tells why, because faith without action is dead; action is the soul that gives life to faith.
Good verse, but read down to the end of the chapter. Still Jesus speaking, and He says, "The one who believes in the Son has eternal life; but the one who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the wrath of God remains on him." John 3:36 What does Jesus say is the opposite of belief? He says that failure to obey is the opposite of belief, which means that belief (from the Greek "pistis" meaning faith) requires obedience. Again, without action salvation is not received.
Eleazar
Member
So you're in the work salvation... good to know.
Believe
Active member
The only action on man's part in salvation is believing. We do that by faith through grace. When we believe we're accepting the free gift of salvation. You don't do any work for a free gift. Baptismal regeneration is a work that don't work. Being water baptized does not save you Or have to do with your salvation. Water baptism is testifying to something that's already happened, namely salvation.
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