Doug, maybe you've never heard this "rule of thumb" before:
Where the scripture speaks, we speak. Where the scripture is silent, we remain silent.
The scripture is silent before Romans 10 was written (about 55 A.D.) about confession that Jesus is Lord being required in order to be saved.
Not true, but you won't believe anything that doesn't agree with your false preconception.
So you have no reason whatsoever to assume that that wrong interpretation was believed or taught by the Apostles and other leaders in the church, prior to that. That is mere speculation, not responsible study of the scripture.
Jesus taught that if He is your Lord you will do what He commands. The Apostles taught that He is, and must be accepted as, both Lord and Savior. All of this was taught long before any of the NT Scriptures were written. You think that Abraham Lincoln wasn't against slavery until the first of his biographies was written? What kind of backward thinking is that?
Peter said that God "has granted to us everything pertaining to life and godliness, ..." 2 Peter 1:3 but we have no indication that anybody was taught that confession of Jesus as Lord is a requirement for salvation, prior to 55 A.D.
Only because you refuse to see it.
You said, "You think that just because it wasn't written down that no one knew it? You think that just because it wasn't written down that it was not being taught by the Apostles and other leaders of the Church?"
So let's look at what you said there: You're saying the Apostles and other leaders of the church taught something before 55 A.D. about a requirement for salvation (according to you), that they never wrote in a letter, so we have no record of it. It's important, because its a "requirement" for any and all to be saved, but for some reason, they never documented it in a letter to the churches before 55 A.D. Letters to the churches were supposed to include everything necessary for believers to grow and understand their salvation, but somehow this vital "fact" got left out, before 55 A.D.
All of the NT Scripture were written during the first century. During that time, the people who had first hand experience with Jesus and the Apostles were still alive, so they had first hand teaching from them. The letters that became recognized as Scripture were not the primary teaching tool, but were used to bolster and clarify teaching that had already been received by direct oral teaching.
Please list "all" the verses in the New Testament where confession that Jesus is Lord is required for salvation. Its sort of like listing "all" the verses in the New Testament that require water baptism to be saved - there are none.
There are numerous of each.
Baptism:
Mark 16:16
Matt 28:19 - same event as Mark 16:16 just from a different perspective
Acts 2:38
Col 2:11-14
Rom 6:1-7
1 Pet 3:21
John 3:5
Eph 5:26
Acts 22:16
Gal 3:27 and the list goes on.
Confession of Jesus
Rom 10:9-10
Matt 10:32
Luke 12:8
1 John 4:15 and there are more as well.
Acts 2:36-38 says zilch about confession that Jesus is Lord being a requirement for salvation, so why would you even say that it does.
Baptism in the first century and before was as way of demonstrating that you were submitting to a person or ideal; it was not originated by John the Baptizer. Being baptized in Jesus' name was to those Jews submitting to His authority as Lord, Peter having just told them in verse 36 that Jesus was both Lord and Christ/Messiah.
You said, "All of Scripture is equal. That means that if something is said even once, it has the same authority as if it were said a thousand times."
So what about the fourth commandment - the Sabbath day? Does it still have the same authority as when God gave it? No, we are no longer under the law and therefore we do not need to keep the Sabbath day.
Agreed. The NT supersedes the OT, and all the OT commandments are no longer applicable to us today. But they do give us insight into how God deals with His people. But we are not talking about OT principles or commandments. Confession of Jesus and baptism into Him are NT commandments and are not nullified by the transition from OT to NT.
Romans 9:31-32 "however, Israel, pursuing a law of righteousness, did not arrive at that law. Why? Because they did not pursue it by faith, but as though they could by works."
So we can't be saved by works, which would include water baptism, verbal confession, good works of any kind, whether they be in the law or not.
We cannot be saved by works of the Law. But we must do what God says leads to receiving salvation. Why is it so hard for you to admit to what Rom 10:9-10 says? It clearly says that confession of Jesus as Lord with the mouth (which is clearly a physical action) RESULTS IN salvation. It does not FLOW OUT FROM having received salvation, it RESULT IN receiving salvation. And James 2:24 says clearly that we are saved by action, not by faith alone (because faith without taking action is dead). These statements are Scripture. I am not adding to what God said. I am simply trying to get you to see what He says.
But you ignore Romans4:9-10 "Is this blessing then on the circumcised, or on the uncircumcised also? For we say, 'Faith was credited to Abraham as righteousness'. How then was it credited? While he was circumcised or uncircumcised? Not while circumcised, but while uncircumcised."
To whom was that originally addressed? To the Jews, sometimes called "the circumcision", who believed that just because they had been circumcised they were more righteous than those who had not been circumcised. He is making the point that Abraham had been declared righteous even before he, their original forefather, was circumcised. Abraham was declared righteous because he obeyed God's voice in faith, trusting that God would do what He said He would do. Abraham had this faith long before he was circumcised, and before he offered Isaac on the alter.
We could also say correctly: 'Is this blessing (salvation) then on (those who confess Jesus as Lord) or (are baptized in water)? For we say, 'Faith is credited to us as righteousness. How then was it credited? When we confessed Jesus as Lord or when we were baptized in water? No, not after confessing Jesus as Lord and not after we were baptized. But we did those things as signs of the faith we had before we confessed Jesus as Lord and before we were baptized in water. So Abraham is the father of all who believe without being baptized in water and without confessing Jesus as Lord.
We certainly could, but that would cause a contradiction in Scripture. Because Acts 2:38 says that we must repent and be baptized in order to receive forgiveness of sins, and Rom 10:9-10 says that our confession of Jesus as Lord with the mouth results in receiving salvation. If it weren't for these (and other) passages that contradict your interpretation, I would happily join you in the "easy believism" camp. But they do, so I can't.
Abraham had faith without being circumcised, without traveling to a distant land, without offering Isaac as an offering. He was a believer in God first - then God gave him righteousness - then he obeyed God and did the things He told him to.
To whom is Jesus the author of salvation according to Heb 5:9? What is the opposite of belief in John 3:36? Abraham was counted as righteous because of his faith, and his faith included his obedient action from the moment he heard God's voice to leave Ur.
Finally you agree with me that in Rom. 10:9-10, Paul is speaking to people who have already been saved. But no, he is not referring back to before they were saved, just as in James 2:23, James is not referring back to Abraham's faith, when he first believed in Genesis 12. James 2:23 refers to Abraham's faith in Genesis 15, much later than when he first believed.
I have always agreed with you that Paul is speaking to people who have already been saved. But he is not talking about them confessing now, after they have been saved. He clearly says that confession of Jesus as Lord RESULTS IN, not flows out from, receiving salvation. This is looking back to when they were unsaved, and those to whom they preach who are also unsaved, as evidenced by the following verses where he talks about the unsaved who have not yet been saved because they have not confessed because they have not heard because a preacher has not yet come to them.
So we too, as believers, some of us for decades, confess Jesus as our Lord continually, and we continually believe in our heart that God raised Him from the dead, which is our continual assurance that our sins have been forgiven. We don't do these things in order to get saved. We do them because we are saved.
Yes, we continually do them because we have been saved. But we must first do them in order to be saved, because confession of Jesus RESULTS IN salvation. Jesus will not claim those who do not claim Him. Us claiming Him is the cause of Him claiming us.