Foreknowledge and Predistination

praise_yeshua

Active Member
I had an idea... Since some of the Calvinists we've long argued with refuse to engage us anymore and ban us from their forums.....

I thought I take one of "ring leaders" comments from their forum and deal with it here.

Link to post in forum that shall not be named... :)
Th_o1_89
We are saying you don't understand the Greek understanding of "prognosis" ("foreknowledge"):

BDAG:
πρόγνωσις, εως, ἡ
1.
foreknowledge πρ. λαμβάνειν τελείαν receive complete foreknowledge 1 Cl 44:2.
2. predetermination, of God’s omniscient wisdom and intention


1. Foreknowledge is not meticulous determination. It is simply the power of God to accomplish His will. It is most definitely power exerted in purpose. However, there is no reason to assume meticulous causality in λαμβάνειν τελείαν

2. Also, Predestination does not establish meticulous causality beyond that depicted in the Scriptures. For example.

Romans 8:30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

Notice the disconnect from Predestination and various other causal events. There is no evidence being presented that establishes a link between Predestination and meticulous determination.

Calvinism often does this. When you ask for details, the argument always crumbles.
 
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1. Foreknowledge is not meticulous determination.
Do you know who originated this phrase and what scripture it rests upon?

2. Also, Predestination does not establish meticulous causality beyond that depicted in the Scriptures.

Matt 10:29-31 seems to imply a fairly deep meticulousness, no?
Are not two sparrows sold for a penny? Yet not one of them will fall to the ground outside your Father's care. And even the very hairs of your head are all numbered. So don't be afraid; you are worth more than many sparrows.
 
Do you know who originated this phrase and what scripture it rests upon?

How can I possibly know all the people who has said this so as to determine who originated it? Such is nonsense.

Neither the Greek nor Hebrew word cares such force.

Matt 10:29-31 seems to imply a fairly deep meticulousness, no?
Are not two sparrows sold for a penny? Yet not one of them will fall to the ground outside your Father's care. And even the very hairs of your head are all numbered. So don't be afraid; you are worth more than many sparrows.

So God is into killing birds? and removing hair from men's heads to determine the final count?

God knowledge of such circumstances does not require His own power to determine them.
 
I had an idea... Since some of the Calvinists we've long argued with refuse to engage us anymore and ban us from their forums.....

I thought I take one of "ring leaders" comments from their forum and deal with it here.

Link to post in forum that shall not be named... :)



1. Foreknowledge is not meticulous determination. It is simply the power of God to accomplish His will. It is most definitely power exerted in purpose. However, there is no reason to assume meticulous causality in λαμβάνειν τελείαν

2. Also, Predestination does not establish meticulous causality beyond that depicted in the Scriptures. For example.

Romans 8:30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

Notice the disconnect from Predestination and various other causal events. There is no evidence being presented that establishes a link between Predestination and meticulous determination.

Calvinism often does this. When you ask for details, the argument always crumbles.
Yes one of the greatest fallacies many make is conflating foreknowledge with predestination.

4309 proorizó(from 4253 /pró, “before” and 3724 /horízō, “establish boundaries, limits”) – properly, pre-horizon, pre-determine limits (boundaries) predestine. Since the root (3724 /horízō) already means “establish boundaries,” the added prefix (pro, “before”) makes 4309 (proorízō) “to pre-establish boundaries,” i.e. before creation.–HELPS™ Word-studies


4267 proginóskó(from 4253 /pró, “before” and 1097 /ginṓskō, “to know”) – properly, foreknow; used in the NT of “God pre-knowing all choices – and doing so without pre-determining (requiring) them” .–HELPS™ Word-studies

What is the difference between foreknowledge, election, and predestination?​

To have foreknowledge or prior knowledge of something is crucial when one is designing and planning. If you are designing a building, you must know ahead of time how to finance, where to place it, its basic layout, structure, materials, workers, etc. God, the Great Creator of all, plans as well.

Abraham knew God had a plan, because he was looking for a “city which has foundations, whose architect and builder is God” Hebrews 11:10. God knew when He designed the earth that man would sin and He had already planned to help mankind “…redeemed with precious blood, as of a lamb unblemished and spotless…foreknown before the foundation of the world…” 1 Peter 1:18-20.

Foreknowledge does not indicate manipulation of free will which all men have from Adam down to our day. It implies an intelligence so great that God can plan without violating any of His four main attributes: justice, wisdom, love and power, and without violating man’s freedom to choose. God’s foreknowledge knows that once mankind reflects on choices which led to sin and destruction, and once they see God’s new covenant which will bring joy and happiness, they will choose righteousness, become perfect, and live forever (Psalm 76:10, Revelation 21:4).
The scriptures demonstrate that there have been, are, and will be “elected” groups, such as the nation of Israel (Amos 3:2, Isaiah 45:4); the church (God’s elect, the true and faithful followers of Jesus) (Romans 8:33, Mark 13:27, and others.); God’s elect in the future (Isaiah 65:22). These are ones who have been chosen at different times for different purposes, and not chosen or called to the isolation or elimination of others, as one day “all the families of the earth” will be blessed, and will eventually be of God’s elect, God’s “ransomed” people. Isaiah 35:10
Predestination, as referred to in Romans 8:29, shows that God foreknew that he would call out a Bride, the Lamb’s Wife, for His son, as in Ephesians 1:4,5 – chosen “before the foundation of the world.” This predestination is of a class, not individuals.
In Romans 8:29, the Apostle Paul coined a brand-new Greek word, proorizo, translated into English as “predestined.” However, the word actually means “to set a boundary ahead of time.” This “boundary” was that the church would be composed of 144,000 (Revelation 7:1-4) who would develop a Christlike character.

Romans 8:30: (NASB 1995) and these whom He predestined, He also called; and these whom He called, He also justified; and these whom He justified, He also glorified.

This verse is about the body of Christ. There will be a class of individuals who conform to preordained standards. The Heavenly Father planned this class even before the foundation of the world. God purposed to grant the Christ (Jesus and His body members) a place of glory, honor, and immortality. (Romans 2:7, 1 Corinthians 15:53)

To give an illustration, let’s suppose a person decided he wanted to have a sports team. Even before the individual members were selected, it was predetermined that the team would exist. Let us also suppose that all of the criteria for the team were predetermined: the number of team members, the positions, the abilities, a team captain, etc. All of these factors were established years before the team came into existence. Sometime later a general announcement is made for tryouts for the team. This tryout is not mandatory; but those who do tryout, meet the qualifications, and actually make the team could be thought of as being the elect of this predestinated team.

These same principles apply to God’s selection of the church. Ephesians 1:4,5 explain that before the foundation of the world, God purposed to have through Christ a select class brought to sonship. The qualification was they must conform to the character image of His son (Romans 8:29). Following the team illustration, God predestined that there shall be a class with Christ as the head and the church as his body. (Ephesians 1:22,23) The individual members were not predestinated, but the collective as a whole was. Paul in Romans 8 tells us how God goes about finding individuals that fit into this elect class. The process is described in verse 30 but is listed in reverse order (predestinated, called, justified, and glorified).

The process starts with those he “glorified,” (Greek word “doxazo,” Strongs #G1392). This word is usually translated as “glorified,” but the word also means “honor.” (For an example, see 1 Corinthians 12:26.) From the context of Romans 8:30, the correct translation should be “honored.”

How was this class honored? They were honored with the knowledge of the gospel, for the sound went into all the earth. (Romans 10:18, 1 Peter 1:12). Those whom He honors with the gospel and knowledge of Christ, He justifies through Christ. Those who are justified through Christ are called to be of the predestinated class. Thus, although it was preordained that individuals should make up this predestinated class, it is of their own “free will” that they enter into this relationship with God. In this relationship, they strive to be copies of His son Jesus Christ who was the first born of this class. (Colossians 1:18, Romans 8:29) This is the class that God purposed and preordained before the foundation of the world.

In the end, because of God’s grand foreknowledge, there will be Christ and his church, who as part of Abraham’s seed (the stars), will bless all the families of the earth (sand of seashore). Genesis 22:17, 18, Galatians 3:16, 17, 27, 29. What grand plans God laid out before the foundations of the world!biblesources.info

hope this helps !!!
 
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'And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God,
to them who are the called according to His purpose.
.. For whom He did foreknow,
.... He also did predestinate
...... to be conformed to the image of His Son,
........ that He might be the firstborn among many brethren.
Moreover whom He did predestinate, them He also called:
.. whom He called, them He also justified:
.... and whom He justified, them He also glorified.'

(Rom 8:28-30)
 
'And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God,
to them who are the called according to His purpose.
.. For whom He did foreknow,
.... He also did predestinate
...... to be conformed to the image of His Son,
........ that He might be the firstborn among many brethren.
Moreover whom He did predestinate, them He also called:
.. whom He called, them He also justified:
.... and whom He justified, them He also glorified.'

(Rom 8:28-30)
Yes the order is foreknowledge precedes predestination. Those predestined are preceded by His foreknowledge.
 
Yes the order is foreknowledge precedes predestination. Those predestined are preceded by His foreknowledge.
ImCo

Romans 8:29 For those God foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the likeness of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brothers.

Foreknew ≠ "knew about" since not everyone He "knew about" conforms to the likeness of HIS son.

Matthew 25:12 But he replied, ‘Truly I tell you, I do not know you.
and
Matt 7:23 Then I will tell them plainly, ‘I never knew you; depart from Me, you workers of lawlessness!’

Therefore foreknew = "knew intimately" John 10:27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. ie foreknew = "foreloved"

Now all accept "fore" means "before" but if the 'before' refers to 'before creation' (and not just before life on earth) then surely we must ask : Why love and choose some and not others? And: why create those whom HE foreknew would not be conformed to the image of HIS Son and go to the lake of fire, IF HE wanted all to be saved as per: 1 Timothy 2:4 who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth. All HE had to do was not create those HE foreknew would reject HIM so this verse in Timothy is a proof verse that He would never create those HE knew would choose to reject HIM.

Since not all are saved, then something happened which HE did not control which allowed some to slip thru the crack of the gates of hell. This something had to be the true free will choice to accept or to reject HIM and HIS plan for their creation which must have happened after their creation.

Therefore HIS fore-love started at their acceptance of HIS will by a true free will choice of their own, which could only have happened in the spirit world before the foundation of the physical world. Since this is also the time of election, we can understand that HE freely chose those who chose to bow to HIS will to be HIS eternal church: Ephesians 1:4 For he chose us in Christ before the foundation of the world that we may be holy and unblemished in his sight in love.
as this timing of election following our true free will choice to bow to GOD, resolves any issues about creating those He had not chosen to salvation just to go to hell as per: 1 Timothy 5:21 I charge you, in the sight of God and Christ Jesus and the ELECT angels, which proves angels are chosen too and yet some fell pre-earth, ie, pre-Eden as we know the serpent arrived in the garden with his eye on corrupting Eve.

In other words, If some angels fell and some were elect, we have the same problem as foreknowledge if election preceded creation or even just preceded the true free will choice to reject GOD's plan: ie it fails in the light of the fact that the GOD WHO IS LOVE would never CREATE any person as condemned to hell by HIS holding back their predestination to salvation at the time of their creation...!
So, as I have been led to understand how these things go together for the True Glory of the GOD WHO IS LOVE:
1. was the creation of all spirits in HIS image
2. then the first commandment to love and obey and glorify GOD
3. resulting in the split between those who bowed and those who rebelled
4. resulting in GOD's choice / election of the people who accepted HIM as GOD, predestining them to be conformed to the image of HIS Son and granting them HIS divine love. That is, they caused their own FATE by their free will but HE predicted and promised that HE would fulfill that fate for them if they should ever fall into sin by the predestination of their end. Predestination was therefore did NOT cause their fates but it was predictive of the fulfillment of their self chosen fates as a certainty.

Thus not only is our free will a completely necessary part of our self chosen destiny, it is mingled strongly with GOD's expression of HIS love for the people who chose to join HIS Family Church.

Christ's peace to all,

Ted
 
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ImCo

Romans 8:29 For those God foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the likeness of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brothers.

Foreknew ≠ "knew about" since not everyone He "knew about" conforms to the likeness of HIS son.

Matthew 7:22 Many will say to me on that day, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and in your name drive out demons and perform many miracles?’ 23 Then I will tell them plainly, ‘I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!’
and
Revelation 21:8 But as for the cowardly, the faithless, the detestable, as for murderers, the sexually immoral, sorcerers, idolaters, and all liars, their portion will be in the lake that burns with fire and sulfur, which is the second death.

Therefore foreknew = "knew intimately" John 10:27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. ie foreknew = "foreloved"

God knew us in CHRIST. Predestined to conformity. Think about it...
 
God knew us in CHRIST. Predestined to conformity. Think about it...
Unmerited predestination to conformity is the same as an unmerited predestination to condemnation which is abhorrent. Predestination must be based upon the merit or dismerit of each person.

The only merit that could have some predestined to the heavenly marriage and the dismerit of others to cause HIM to pass them over for salvation is their own free will choice to accept HIS revelation by proclamation to be our GOD and saviour from all sin
OR
the rebuke of HIS revelation, the rebuke of HIS proclamation to be our GOD and saviour from sin as the lies of a false god driven by a psychotic megalomania.

Unconditional election and reprobation is not a praise of YHWH's power but is rather a defamation of HIS love...
 
Unmerited predestination to conformity is the same as an unmerited predestination to condemnation which is abhorrent. Predestination must be based upon the merit or dismerit of each person.

You're assuming individual predestination. I'm not. It is an unnamed group and undefined group only quantified by the purpose the predestination. The willing servant.
 
You're assuming individual predestination. I'm not. It is an unnamed group and undefined group only quantified by the purpose the predestination. The willing servant.
Methinks the only reason NOT to assume an individual predestination when all group predestination affects only individuals, is to keep your definitions useable in the face of the weight of scripture against your interpretation...

Unconditional election and reprobation is not a praise of YHWH's power but is rather a defamation of HIS love...
 
Methinks the only reason NOT to assume an individual predestination when all group predestination affects only individuals, is to keep your definitions useable in the face of the weight of scripture against your interpretation...

Unconditional election and reprobation is not a praise of YHWH's power but is rather a defamation of HIS love...

Falsify unconditional election using scripture, not just by your idea of what a loving God would do.
 
ImCo​
Romans 8:29 For those God foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the likeness of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brothers.
Foreknew ≠ "knew about" since not everyone He "knew about" conforms to the likeness of HIS son.​
Matthew 25:12 But he replied, ‘Truly I tell you, I do not know you.
and​
Matt 7:23 Then I will tell them plainly, ‘I never knew you; depart from Me, you workers of lawlessness!’
Therefore foreknew = "knew intimately" John 10:27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. ie foreknew = "foreloved"Now all accept "fore" means "before" but if the 'before' refers to 'before creation' (and not just before life on earth) then surely we must ask : Why love and choose some and not others? And: why create those whom HE foreknew would not be conformed to the image of HIS Son and go to the lake of fire, IF HE wanted all to be saved as per: 1 Timothy 2:4 who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth.All HE had to do was not create those HE foreknew would reject HIM so this verse in Timothy is a proof verse that He would never create those HE knew would choose to reject HIM.​

Since not all are saved, then something happened which HE did not control which allowed some to slip thru the crack of the gates of hell. This something had to be the true free will choice to accept or to reject HIM and HIS plan for their creation which must have happened after their creation.

Therefore HIS fore-love started at their acceptance of HIS will by a true free will choice of their own, which could only have happened in the spirit world before the foundation of the physical world. Since this is also the time of election, we can understand that HE freely chose those who chose to bow to HIS will to be HIS eternal church: Ephesians 1:4 For he chose us in Christ before the foundation of the world that we may be holy and unblemished in his sight in love.
as this timing of election following our true free will choice to bow to GOD, resolves any issues about creating those He had not chosen to salvation just to go to hell as per: 1 Timothy 5:21 I charge you, in the sight of God and Christ Jesus and the ELECT angels, which proves angels are chosen too and yet some fell pre-earth, ie, pre-Eden as we know the serpent arrived in the garden with his eye on corrupting Eve.

In other words, If some angels fell and some were elect, we have the same problem as foreknowledge if election preceded creation or even just preceded the true free will choice to reject GOD's plan: ie it fails in the light of the fact that the GOD WHO IS LOVE would never CREATE any person as condemned to hell by HIS holding back their predestination to salvation at the time of their creation...!
So, as I have been led to understand how these things go together for the True Glory of the GOD WHO IS LOVE:
1. was the creation of all spirits in HIS image
2. then the first commandment to love and obey and glorify GOD
3. resulting in the split between those who bowed and those who rebelled
4. resulting in GOD's choice / election of the people who accepted HIM as GOD, predestining them to be conformed to the image of HIS Son and granting them HIS divine love. That is, they caused their own FATE by their free will but HE predicted and promised that HE would fulfill that fate for them if they should ever fall into sin by the predestination of their end. Predestination was therefore did NOT cause their fates but it was predictive of the fulfillment of their self chosen fates as a certainty.

Thus not only is our free will a completely necessary part of our self chosen destiny, it is mingled strongly with GOD's expression of HIS love for the people who chose to join HIS Family Church.

Christ's peace to all,

Ted
'For whom He did foreknow, (i.e., know beforehand)
He also did predestinate (ie.,marked out beforehand)
to be conformed (ie., jointly formed - figuratively)
to the image (i.e., a representation)
of His Son,
that He
might be the firstborn
among many brethren.

(Rom 8:29)

Hello @TedT,

In relation to your opening sentence and the quotations from Mat. 25:12 & 7:23, in regard to the word, 'foreknow': The Lord foreknew (or foresaw) those whom He would conform to the image of His Son. Like God's choice of Jacob rather than Esau, prior to their birth, the character or behaviour of either did not determine the choice. Similarly, those chosen by God in this case, were not chosen because of any merit on their part, but it was God-The-Father's sovereign choice. So, with respect, I do not believe that the verses you have referred to apply in this case.

(Joh 6:37) All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
(Joh 6:44) No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.

I hope you will agree that we must take into consideration not only what is spoken or written, but also to whom, and at what time, and the context in which it comes. For during the Gospels and the Act's period, God was calling out a remnant, it was not the time for ALL Israel to be saved. (Romans 11), though opportunity had to be given.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
 
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(Joh 6:37) All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
(Joh 6:44) No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.

This is what one has to falsify in order to falsify unconditional election. All the Father gives me SHALL come to me. That's unconditional. It's not conditioned upon a decision people make who comes to Jesus. It's those whom the Father gives to Jesus. They SHALL come to Jesus, period.

I've seen people say this only refers to the disciples, but that's falsified by the word SHALL. Jesus already had the disciples. There's no SHALL involved.
 
This is what one has to falsify in order to falsify unconditional election. All the Father gives me SHALL come to me. That's unconditional. It's not conditioned upon a decision people make who comes to Jesus. It's those whom the Father gives to Jesus. They SHALL come to Jesus, period.

I've seen people say this only refers to the disciples, but that's falsified by the word SHALL. Jesus already had the disciples. There's no SHALL involved.
Read John 12:32. :)

All men without exception:)
 
Falsify unconditional election using scripture,

What scriptures do I use to base my faith (not proof) in a merited election ?

Every verse that states or implies our GOD is loving, righteous and just.


1 Timothy 5:21 I charge thee before GOD and the Lord Jesus Christ, and the ELECT angels. Since there are elect angels we can assume that the demonic angels were passed over for election or not considered for election. Angels do not presumably have any racial solidarity, ie, they all are holy or sinful by their own choice, not by anyone else's choice. So now we have to answer the question: were some elected before or after the fall of the Satanic rebellion?

IF they were elected / chosen before the fall then there is no stated reason for the non-election of the others. Unmerited election then also means unmerited non-election, ie, for no lack of merit at all some were passed over for salvation and NOT chosen to be saved if they should ever sin.

What can we make of such a supposition? Can we say it is loving? Righteous? Just? The best we can say is HE is sovereign and if HE chose this way then who are you to argue, which is not a real answer at all. Why teach us HE is loving, righteous and just if it has no meaning in the biggest question in their existence: Why were some passed over for election!!!

It is entirely possible that the decision for some to receive unmerited election and others to receive unmerited rejection for election with no indication that this decision was loving, righteous or just could have precipitated the Satanic war in heaven for NOT BEING loving, righteous or just so they committed themselves to war, putting their faith in the belief that YHWH was a false god and a liar, unworthy of being their GOD.

This is what 'unconditional' implies. It implies 'no reason', not just an 'unknown reason' because if there was a reason there would be merit by being on the side of the reason. Unconditional election means they were just as acceptable for election as everyone but did not receive it....that is what 'without merit' also means! That does NOT sound loving, righteous and just at all. IF they were passed over for a evil they did then there is merit to the election of those that were not passed over but who got the promise of election because they did not do that evil!!

BUT, if election was a response to the Satanic rebellion to reward those angels who did not rebel and to pass over those angels who did rebel and condemn them on the spot, then merit makes sense. Their rebellion to the command to put their faith in the Son and to love one another which they heard in the beginning* is the reason they were passed over to be HIS Bride. The choice by some to accept HIM as their GOD and to put their faith in in HIS Son was the reason they were elected based upon the merit of this choice to obey the commandment.

*[1 John 2:24 Let that therefore abide in you, which ye have heard from the beginning. If that which ye have heard from the beginning shall remain in you, ye shall continue in the Son, and in the Father.

1 John 3:8 ...for the devil sinneth from the beginning.
Jamieson, Fausset and Brown's commentary(#27) says: “sinneth from the beginning - from the time that sin began; from the time that he became what he is, the devil.”

1 John 3:11 For this is the message that ye heard from the beginning, that we should love one another. I believe that John is referring to the loving purpose GOD has for each of us: 1 John 3:23 And this is His commandment, That we should believe on the name of His Son, Jesus Christ, and love one another, as He gave us commandment. ]

Thus we probably have a precedent for election being based upon merit and proper free will decisions being the condition of being elected. And since unconditional election is probably false in the first people elected, I strongly suggest that it is wrongly used for sinful men who were also elected before the foundation of the world, Ephesians 1:4, (you know: at the beginning, the time of the Satanic fall, perhaps):

Isaiah 40:21 Do you not know? Have you not heard?? HAS IT NOT BEEN TOLD YOU FROM THE BEGINNING? Have you not understood SINCE THE EARTH WAS FOUNDED? ... which equates the beginning with the founding of the earth which all the sons of GOD saw and sang HIS praise, Job 38:7!! This exhortation is addressed to my people, verse 1 and doesn't deviate.

I'll post other thoughts about the beginning, soon.
 
"In THE beginning..." we are altering the text, as the definite article ("THE") isn't present in the Hebrew version. In other words, the Hebrew doesn't state whether Genesis 1:1 is talking about "THE" beginning (the first and only one), or instead is talking about "A" beginning (one among many others). If you check the Interlinear Bible edited by John R. Kohlenberger III you'll find that he makes this same clarification.

JOHN'S BEGINNING
This category has to do with the apostle John's use of the word "beginning" in his first letter. 1 John 1:1 That which was from the beginning… the Word of life.
This introduction is very similar to the one John used in his gospel, which begins with: In the beginning was the Word. I believe that both refer to the same time, and that this time is synonymous with the time in Genesis 1:1 in the beginning. Thus these three references refer to the time before (or at the front of) the six days of the creation of the world.

1 John 2:7 I write no new commandment unto you, but an old commandment which ye had from the beginning. The old commandment is the word which ye have heard from the beginning. I cannot help but think that John was alluding to Isaiah 40:21 Do you not know? Have you not heard? Has it not been told you from the beginning? Have you not understood since the earth was founded? If he is not alluding to Isaiah, he certainly is referring to the same truth in my opinion.

1 John 2:14 I have written unto you, fathers, because ye have known Him [that is] from the beginning. It probably is not necessary, but for the last time, “that is” is not in the Greek text. Therefore, in Greek, it reads, “known Him from the beginning”. So, is it HIM from the beginning or we knew from the beginning?

1 John 2:24 Let that therefore abide in you, which ye have heard from the beginning. If that which ye have heard from the beginning shall remain in you, ye shall continue in the Son, and in the Father. It should be noted that in the Bible, “the beginning” usually refers to all the time and events that happened before Genesis 1:2, that is, the time when the angels were created and the rebellion in Paradise took place, 1 John 3:8 ...for the devil sinneth from the beginning.

Jamieson, Fausset and Brown's commentary(#27) says: “sinneth from the beginning - from the time that sin began; from the time that he became what he is, the devil.” This must be around the same time as In the beginning of Genesis 1:1. At least, it can not be much after. Since all the sons of man, Satan included, saw the beginning of the physical universe, Job 38:7 and since earth was chosen to be the prison planet to contain all the sinners, Satan included, Rev 12:4-9, it is no great leap of faith to think that Earth was created to house the sinful after they sinned!

1 John 3:11 For this is the message that ye heard from the beginning, that we should love one another. I believe that John is referring to the loving purpose GOD has for each of us from our creation.

1 John 3:23 And this is His commandment, That we should believe on the name of His Son, Jesus Christ, and love one another, as He gave us commandment. According to 2:7, we heard this old commandment “from the beginning”.

Conclusion for John's Beginning.
When the word “beginning” has to do with Jesus or the devil, it means around the same time as Genesis 1:1, that is, before or at the beginning of the six day creation.

Are we really warranted in redefining it whenever it refers to us? I know that it has been redefined to fit in with the traditional presuppositions regarding the creation of our spirit on earth, but does this not constitute a twisting or taking Scripture out of context?

According to pre-conception existence theology,PCE, each of these references, by the same author, in the same letter, has the same meaning. To my mind, this is much superior to having two definitions of the same word, in the same letter, by the same author. Why did John not use two different words if he meant two different times? I do not think that John was mixed up. In fact, I think he knew very well exactly what he was saying. He seems to be very good at saying it over, and over, and over…
 
Read John 12:32. :)

All men without exception:)

That's not what it says. It doesn't say "all men". It simply says "all". The word "people" or "men" is only implied which is why it appears in translations. In the context of the chapter, it means all without distinction, meaning "not just the Jews but gentiles, too".
 
That's not what it says. It doesn't say "all men". It simply says "all". The word "people" or "men" is only implied which is why it appears in translations. In the context of the chapter, it means all without distinction, meaning "not just the Jews but gentiles, too".

'And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto Me.
This He said, signifying what death He should die.'

(John 12:32-33)

'All that the Father giveth Me shall come to Me;
and him that cometh to Me I will in no wise cast out.'

(Joh 6:37)

'And this is the Father's will which hath sent Me,
that of all which He hath given Me I should lose nothing,
but should raise it up again at the last day.
And this is the will of Him that sent Me,
that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on Him,
may have everlasting life: and I will raise Him up at the last day.'

(Joh 6:39-40)

Hello @The Rogue Tomatoe,

It is interesting to compare the verse you are considering (John 12:32) with the two scriptures I have placed above for comparison. In both John 2:22 and John 6:39-40, the Lord refers to Himself in resurrection or 'lifted up' from the earth, so that cannot be pointed out as a point of difference between them. Also in John 6:39-40 reference is made to 'seeing the Son', and we know that unbelievers neither see or hear 'the Son', for they are doing neither with the eyes of faith. They, during His lifetime, saw His form, and heard His voice, but did not acknowledge His Sonship, that requires 'eyes that see' and 'ears that hear', and they had neither.

So, 'All men' (John 2:32), refers to those who have both, 'heard' and 'seen' that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God, and believing have received life through His name.

Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
 
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